uniformly continuous function $f$ such that $sum 1/f(n)$ is convergent?
$begingroup$
Does there exist a uniformly continuous function $f:[1,infty)to mathbb R$ such that $sum_{n=1}^infty 1/f(n)$ is convergent ?
I know that $exists M>0$ such that $|f(x)|< Mx, forall xin [1,infty)$, so $|1/f(n)|>1/(Mn) ,forall n ge 1$, thus $sum_{n=1}^infty |1/f(n)|$ is divergent. But I don't know what happens with $sum_{n=1}^infty 1/f(n)$.
Please help
real-analysis sequences-and-series uniform-continuity
$endgroup$
|
show 7 more comments
$begingroup$
Does there exist a uniformly continuous function $f:[1,infty)to mathbb R$ such that $sum_{n=1}^infty 1/f(n)$ is convergent ?
I know that $exists M>0$ such that $|f(x)|< Mx, forall xin [1,infty)$, so $|1/f(n)|>1/(Mn) ,forall n ge 1$, thus $sum_{n=1}^infty |1/f(n)|$ is divergent. But I don't know what happens with $sum_{n=1}^infty 1/f(n)$.
Please help
real-analysis sequences-and-series uniform-continuity
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Hint: can you figure out how to find an elementary $f$ that alternates in sign at each integer, is increasing in absolute value, and grows at $o(x)$ as $xtoinfty$? (Bigger hint: can you figure out how to take a positive function that satisfies the last two conditions, and make it satisfy the first?)
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Dec 11 '18 at 21:29
$begingroup$
@StevenStadnicki: not really no ... I have no idea what you're talking about ...
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 21:32
$begingroup$
Try this: can you think of an elementary function whose value at $n$ is $(-1)^n$?
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Dec 11 '18 at 21:35
4
$begingroup$
Product of two uniformly continuous functions is not necessarily uniformly continuous...they must be bounded for that to be true. I wouldn't trust their suggestions.
$endgroup$
– Jeffery Opoku-Mensah
Dec 11 '18 at 21:56
1
$begingroup$
@JefferyOpoku-Mensah You're right. I followed the line of comments without thinking. It's not immediate it works. (And won't for every such choice of functions)
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 11 '18 at 22:02
|
show 7 more comments
$begingroup$
Does there exist a uniformly continuous function $f:[1,infty)to mathbb R$ such that $sum_{n=1}^infty 1/f(n)$ is convergent ?
I know that $exists M>0$ such that $|f(x)|< Mx, forall xin [1,infty)$, so $|1/f(n)|>1/(Mn) ,forall n ge 1$, thus $sum_{n=1}^infty |1/f(n)|$ is divergent. But I don't know what happens with $sum_{n=1}^infty 1/f(n)$.
Please help
real-analysis sequences-and-series uniform-continuity
$endgroup$
Does there exist a uniformly continuous function $f:[1,infty)to mathbb R$ such that $sum_{n=1}^infty 1/f(n)$ is convergent ?
I know that $exists M>0$ such that $|f(x)|< Mx, forall xin [1,infty)$, so $|1/f(n)|>1/(Mn) ,forall n ge 1$, thus $sum_{n=1}^infty |1/f(n)|$ is divergent. But I don't know what happens with $sum_{n=1}^infty 1/f(n)$.
Please help
real-analysis sequences-and-series uniform-continuity
real-analysis sequences-and-series uniform-continuity
asked Dec 11 '18 at 21:23
user521337user521337
1,2041417
1,2041417
1
$begingroup$
Hint: can you figure out how to find an elementary $f$ that alternates in sign at each integer, is increasing in absolute value, and grows at $o(x)$ as $xtoinfty$? (Bigger hint: can you figure out how to take a positive function that satisfies the last two conditions, and make it satisfy the first?)
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Dec 11 '18 at 21:29
$begingroup$
@StevenStadnicki: not really no ... I have no idea what you're talking about ...
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 21:32
$begingroup$
Try this: can you think of an elementary function whose value at $n$ is $(-1)^n$?
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Dec 11 '18 at 21:35
4
$begingroup$
Product of two uniformly continuous functions is not necessarily uniformly continuous...they must be bounded for that to be true. I wouldn't trust their suggestions.
$endgroup$
– Jeffery Opoku-Mensah
Dec 11 '18 at 21:56
1
$begingroup$
@JefferyOpoku-Mensah You're right. I followed the line of comments without thinking. It's not immediate it works. (And won't for every such choice of functions)
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 11 '18 at 22:02
|
show 7 more comments
1
$begingroup$
Hint: can you figure out how to find an elementary $f$ that alternates in sign at each integer, is increasing in absolute value, and grows at $o(x)$ as $xtoinfty$? (Bigger hint: can you figure out how to take a positive function that satisfies the last two conditions, and make it satisfy the first?)
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Dec 11 '18 at 21:29
$begingroup$
@StevenStadnicki: not really no ... I have no idea what you're talking about ...
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 21:32
$begingroup$
Try this: can you think of an elementary function whose value at $n$ is $(-1)^n$?
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Dec 11 '18 at 21:35
4
$begingroup$
Product of two uniformly continuous functions is not necessarily uniformly continuous...they must be bounded for that to be true. I wouldn't trust their suggestions.
$endgroup$
– Jeffery Opoku-Mensah
Dec 11 '18 at 21:56
1
$begingroup$
@JefferyOpoku-Mensah You're right. I followed the line of comments without thinking. It's not immediate it works. (And won't for every such choice of functions)
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 11 '18 at 22:02
1
1
$begingroup$
Hint: can you figure out how to find an elementary $f$ that alternates in sign at each integer, is increasing in absolute value, and grows at $o(x)$ as $xtoinfty$? (Bigger hint: can you figure out how to take a positive function that satisfies the last two conditions, and make it satisfy the first?)
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Dec 11 '18 at 21:29
$begingroup$
Hint: can you figure out how to find an elementary $f$ that alternates in sign at each integer, is increasing in absolute value, and grows at $o(x)$ as $xtoinfty$? (Bigger hint: can you figure out how to take a positive function that satisfies the last two conditions, and make it satisfy the first?)
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Dec 11 '18 at 21:29
$begingroup$
@StevenStadnicki: not really no ... I have no idea what you're talking about ...
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 21:32
$begingroup$
@StevenStadnicki: not really no ... I have no idea what you're talking about ...
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 21:32
$begingroup$
Try this: can you think of an elementary function whose value at $n$ is $(-1)^n$?
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Dec 11 '18 at 21:35
$begingroup$
Try this: can you think of an elementary function whose value at $n$ is $(-1)^n$?
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Dec 11 '18 at 21:35
4
4
$begingroup$
Product of two uniformly continuous functions is not necessarily uniformly continuous...they must be bounded for that to be true. I wouldn't trust their suggestions.
$endgroup$
– Jeffery Opoku-Mensah
Dec 11 '18 at 21:56
$begingroup$
Product of two uniformly continuous functions is not necessarily uniformly continuous...they must be bounded for that to be true. I wouldn't trust their suggestions.
$endgroup$
– Jeffery Opoku-Mensah
Dec 11 '18 at 21:56
1
1
$begingroup$
@JefferyOpoku-Mensah You're right. I followed the line of comments without thinking. It's not immediate it works. (And won't for every such choice of functions)
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 11 '18 at 22:02
$begingroup$
@JefferyOpoku-Mensah You're right. I followed the line of comments without thinking. It's not immediate it works. (And won't for every such choice of functions)
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 11 '18 at 22:02
|
show 7 more comments
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let us assume that such a function $f$ exists. From the uniform continuity we get a constant $M > 0$ such that
$$ tag 1
|f(n+1) - f(n)| < M
$$
for all $n in Bbb N$. In particular $|f(n)| < |f(1)| + nM$, so that
$sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{|f(n)|}$ diverges (as you already observed).
If $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{f(n)}$ is convergent then
necessarily $|f(n)| to infty$ so that
$$ tag 2
|f(n)| > M
$$
for $n ge n_0$.
Combining these inequalities it follows that for $n ge n_0$, all $f(n)$ have the same sign, so that $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{f(n)}$
is absolutely convergent, in contradiction to the above observation.
Therefore no such function $f$ exists.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
You should say $|f(n)| to infty $ ...
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 22:20
$begingroup$
I don't see why $f(n)$ s ultimately have the same sign ... could you please elaborate on that ?
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 22:23
1
$begingroup$
@user521337: If $f(n)$ and $f(n+1)$ have different sign and both have an absolute value $> M$ then their absolute difference would be at least $2M$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Dec 11 '18 at 22:25
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Assume that $sum 1/f$ converges. Then for some $N_k in mathbb{N}$,
$$n > N_k implies |1/f(n)| < 1/k implies |f(n)| > k.$$
$f$ is uniformly continuous. Therefore, there exists $m in mathbb{N}$ such that $|x-y| < 1/m implies |f(x)-f(y)| < 1$. By the triangle inequality, this implies $|f(n+1)-f(n)|<m$ for all $n$.
Then if $a, a+1 > N_{lceil m/2 rceil} = N'$ are integers such that WLOG $f(a) > 0$ and $f(a+1) < 0$, then $f(a) > k$ and $f(a+1) < -k$. Then $|f(a+1)-f(a)|> 2lceil m/2 rceil > m$, contradiction. Therefore, $f(n)$ must not change sign for integer $n > N'$.
So, assume WLOG that $f(n)$ is eventually positive. Note this implies for $n > N'$ and $r in mathbb{N}$, that $f(n+r) > f(n)+ rm$.
Write
$$sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{f(n)} = sum_{n=1}^{N'} frac{1}{f(n)} + sum_{n= N'+1}^{infty} frac{1}{f(n)}$$
Realize that for the following series whose terms are strictly positive,
$$sum_{n= N'+1}^{infty} frac{1}{f(n)} > sum_{n = 0}^{infty} frac{1}{f(N'+1) + nm},$$
and the RHS obviously diverges. Contradiction.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let us assume that such a function $f$ exists. From the uniform continuity we get a constant $M > 0$ such that
$$ tag 1
|f(n+1) - f(n)| < M
$$
for all $n in Bbb N$. In particular $|f(n)| < |f(1)| + nM$, so that
$sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{|f(n)|}$ diverges (as you already observed).
If $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{f(n)}$ is convergent then
necessarily $|f(n)| to infty$ so that
$$ tag 2
|f(n)| > M
$$
for $n ge n_0$.
Combining these inequalities it follows that for $n ge n_0$, all $f(n)$ have the same sign, so that $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{f(n)}$
is absolutely convergent, in contradiction to the above observation.
Therefore no such function $f$ exists.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
You should say $|f(n)| to infty $ ...
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 22:20
$begingroup$
I don't see why $f(n)$ s ultimately have the same sign ... could you please elaborate on that ?
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 22:23
1
$begingroup$
@user521337: If $f(n)$ and $f(n+1)$ have different sign and both have an absolute value $> M$ then their absolute difference would be at least $2M$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Dec 11 '18 at 22:25
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let us assume that such a function $f$ exists. From the uniform continuity we get a constant $M > 0$ such that
$$ tag 1
|f(n+1) - f(n)| < M
$$
for all $n in Bbb N$. In particular $|f(n)| < |f(1)| + nM$, so that
$sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{|f(n)|}$ diverges (as you already observed).
If $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{f(n)}$ is convergent then
necessarily $|f(n)| to infty$ so that
$$ tag 2
|f(n)| > M
$$
for $n ge n_0$.
Combining these inequalities it follows that for $n ge n_0$, all $f(n)$ have the same sign, so that $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{f(n)}$
is absolutely convergent, in contradiction to the above observation.
Therefore no such function $f$ exists.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
You should say $|f(n)| to infty $ ...
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 22:20
$begingroup$
I don't see why $f(n)$ s ultimately have the same sign ... could you please elaborate on that ?
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 22:23
1
$begingroup$
@user521337: If $f(n)$ and $f(n+1)$ have different sign and both have an absolute value $> M$ then their absolute difference would be at least $2M$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Dec 11 '18 at 22:25
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let us assume that such a function $f$ exists. From the uniform continuity we get a constant $M > 0$ such that
$$ tag 1
|f(n+1) - f(n)| < M
$$
for all $n in Bbb N$. In particular $|f(n)| < |f(1)| + nM$, so that
$sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{|f(n)|}$ diverges (as you already observed).
If $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{f(n)}$ is convergent then
necessarily $|f(n)| to infty$ so that
$$ tag 2
|f(n)| > M
$$
for $n ge n_0$.
Combining these inequalities it follows that for $n ge n_0$, all $f(n)$ have the same sign, so that $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{f(n)}$
is absolutely convergent, in contradiction to the above observation.
Therefore no such function $f$ exists.
$endgroup$
Let us assume that such a function $f$ exists. From the uniform continuity we get a constant $M > 0$ such that
$$ tag 1
|f(n+1) - f(n)| < M
$$
for all $n in Bbb N$. In particular $|f(n)| < |f(1)| + nM$, so that
$sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{|f(n)|}$ diverges (as you already observed).
If $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{f(n)}$ is convergent then
necessarily $|f(n)| to infty$ so that
$$ tag 2
|f(n)| > M
$$
for $n ge n_0$.
Combining these inequalities it follows that for $n ge n_0$, all $f(n)$ have the same sign, so that $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{f(n)}$
is absolutely convergent, in contradiction to the above observation.
Therefore no such function $f$ exists.
edited Dec 11 '18 at 22:28
answered Dec 11 '18 at 22:15
Martin RMartin R
30.2k33558
30.2k33558
1
$begingroup$
You should say $|f(n)| to infty $ ...
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 22:20
$begingroup$
I don't see why $f(n)$ s ultimately have the same sign ... could you please elaborate on that ?
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 22:23
1
$begingroup$
@user521337: If $f(n)$ and $f(n+1)$ have different sign and both have an absolute value $> M$ then their absolute difference would be at least $2M$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Dec 11 '18 at 22:25
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
You should say $|f(n)| to infty $ ...
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 22:20
$begingroup$
I don't see why $f(n)$ s ultimately have the same sign ... could you please elaborate on that ?
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 22:23
1
$begingroup$
@user521337: If $f(n)$ and $f(n+1)$ have different sign and both have an absolute value $> M$ then their absolute difference would be at least $2M$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Dec 11 '18 at 22:25
1
1
$begingroup$
You should say $|f(n)| to infty $ ...
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 22:20
$begingroup$
You should say $|f(n)| to infty $ ...
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 22:20
$begingroup$
I don't see why $f(n)$ s ultimately have the same sign ... could you please elaborate on that ?
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 22:23
$begingroup$
I don't see why $f(n)$ s ultimately have the same sign ... could you please elaborate on that ?
$endgroup$
– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 22:23
1
1
$begingroup$
@user521337: If $f(n)$ and $f(n+1)$ have different sign and both have an absolute value $> M$ then their absolute difference would be at least $2M$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Dec 11 '18 at 22:25
$begingroup$
@user521337: If $f(n)$ and $f(n+1)$ have different sign and both have an absolute value $> M$ then their absolute difference would be at least $2M$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Dec 11 '18 at 22:25
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Assume that $sum 1/f$ converges. Then for some $N_k in mathbb{N}$,
$$n > N_k implies |1/f(n)| < 1/k implies |f(n)| > k.$$
$f$ is uniformly continuous. Therefore, there exists $m in mathbb{N}$ such that $|x-y| < 1/m implies |f(x)-f(y)| < 1$. By the triangle inequality, this implies $|f(n+1)-f(n)|<m$ for all $n$.
Then if $a, a+1 > N_{lceil m/2 rceil} = N'$ are integers such that WLOG $f(a) > 0$ and $f(a+1) < 0$, then $f(a) > k$ and $f(a+1) < -k$. Then $|f(a+1)-f(a)|> 2lceil m/2 rceil > m$, contradiction. Therefore, $f(n)$ must not change sign for integer $n > N'$.
So, assume WLOG that $f(n)$ is eventually positive. Note this implies for $n > N'$ and $r in mathbb{N}$, that $f(n+r) > f(n)+ rm$.
Write
$$sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{f(n)} = sum_{n=1}^{N'} frac{1}{f(n)} + sum_{n= N'+1}^{infty} frac{1}{f(n)}$$
Realize that for the following series whose terms are strictly positive,
$$sum_{n= N'+1}^{infty} frac{1}{f(n)} > sum_{n = 0}^{infty} frac{1}{f(N'+1) + nm},$$
and the RHS obviously diverges. Contradiction.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Assume that $sum 1/f$ converges. Then for some $N_k in mathbb{N}$,
$$n > N_k implies |1/f(n)| < 1/k implies |f(n)| > k.$$
$f$ is uniformly continuous. Therefore, there exists $m in mathbb{N}$ such that $|x-y| < 1/m implies |f(x)-f(y)| < 1$. By the triangle inequality, this implies $|f(n+1)-f(n)|<m$ for all $n$.
Then if $a, a+1 > N_{lceil m/2 rceil} = N'$ are integers such that WLOG $f(a) > 0$ and $f(a+1) < 0$, then $f(a) > k$ and $f(a+1) < -k$. Then $|f(a+1)-f(a)|> 2lceil m/2 rceil > m$, contradiction. Therefore, $f(n)$ must not change sign for integer $n > N'$.
So, assume WLOG that $f(n)$ is eventually positive. Note this implies for $n > N'$ and $r in mathbb{N}$, that $f(n+r) > f(n)+ rm$.
Write
$$sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{f(n)} = sum_{n=1}^{N'} frac{1}{f(n)} + sum_{n= N'+1}^{infty} frac{1}{f(n)}$$
Realize that for the following series whose terms are strictly positive,
$$sum_{n= N'+1}^{infty} frac{1}{f(n)} > sum_{n = 0}^{infty} frac{1}{f(N'+1) + nm},$$
and the RHS obviously diverges. Contradiction.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Assume that $sum 1/f$ converges. Then for some $N_k in mathbb{N}$,
$$n > N_k implies |1/f(n)| < 1/k implies |f(n)| > k.$$
$f$ is uniformly continuous. Therefore, there exists $m in mathbb{N}$ such that $|x-y| < 1/m implies |f(x)-f(y)| < 1$. By the triangle inequality, this implies $|f(n+1)-f(n)|<m$ for all $n$.
Then if $a, a+1 > N_{lceil m/2 rceil} = N'$ are integers such that WLOG $f(a) > 0$ and $f(a+1) < 0$, then $f(a) > k$ and $f(a+1) < -k$. Then $|f(a+1)-f(a)|> 2lceil m/2 rceil > m$, contradiction. Therefore, $f(n)$ must not change sign for integer $n > N'$.
So, assume WLOG that $f(n)$ is eventually positive. Note this implies for $n > N'$ and $r in mathbb{N}$, that $f(n+r) > f(n)+ rm$.
Write
$$sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{f(n)} = sum_{n=1}^{N'} frac{1}{f(n)} + sum_{n= N'+1}^{infty} frac{1}{f(n)}$$
Realize that for the following series whose terms are strictly positive,
$$sum_{n= N'+1}^{infty} frac{1}{f(n)} > sum_{n = 0}^{infty} frac{1}{f(N'+1) + nm},$$
and the RHS obviously diverges. Contradiction.
$endgroup$
Assume that $sum 1/f$ converges. Then for some $N_k in mathbb{N}$,
$$n > N_k implies |1/f(n)| < 1/k implies |f(n)| > k.$$
$f$ is uniformly continuous. Therefore, there exists $m in mathbb{N}$ such that $|x-y| < 1/m implies |f(x)-f(y)| < 1$. By the triangle inequality, this implies $|f(n+1)-f(n)|<m$ for all $n$.
Then if $a, a+1 > N_{lceil m/2 rceil} = N'$ are integers such that WLOG $f(a) > 0$ and $f(a+1) < 0$, then $f(a) > k$ and $f(a+1) < -k$. Then $|f(a+1)-f(a)|> 2lceil m/2 rceil > m$, contradiction. Therefore, $f(n)$ must not change sign for integer $n > N'$.
So, assume WLOG that $f(n)$ is eventually positive. Note this implies for $n > N'$ and $r in mathbb{N}$, that $f(n+r) > f(n)+ rm$.
Write
$$sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{f(n)} = sum_{n=1}^{N'} frac{1}{f(n)} + sum_{n= N'+1}^{infty} frac{1}{f(n)}$$
Realize that for the following series whose terms are strictly positive,
$$sum_{n= N'+1}^{infty} frac{1}{f(n)} > sum_{n = 0}^{infty} frac{1}{f(N'+1) + nm},$$
and the RHS obviously diverges. Contradiction.
answered Dec 11 '18 at 22:17
Jeffery Opoku-MensahJeffery Opoku-Mensah
3,536820
3,536820
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1
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Hint: can you figure out how to find an elementary $f$ that alternates in sign at each integer, is increasing in absolute value, and grows at $o(x)$ as $xtoinfty$? (Bigger hint: can you figure out how to take a positive function that satisfies the last two conditions, and make it satisfy the first?)
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– Steven Stadnicki
Dec 11 '18 at 21:29
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@StevenStadnicki: not really no ... I have no idea what you're talking about ...
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– user521337
Dec 11 '18 at 21:32
$begingroup$
Try this: can you think of an elementary function whose value at $n$ is $(-1)^n$?
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– Steven Stadnicki
Dec 11 '18 at 21:35
4
$begingroup$
Product of two uniformly continuous functions is not necessarily uniformly continuous...they must be bounded for that to be true. I wouldn't trust their suggestions.
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– Jeffery Opoku-Mensah
Dec 11 '18 at 21:56
1
$begingroup$
@JefferyOpoku-Mensah You're right. I followed the line of comments without thinking. It's not immediate it works. (And won't for every such choice of functions)
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– Clement C.
Dec 11 '18 at 22:02