${xmid x^TAxleq 1} = {xmid x^TBxleq 1} Rightarrow A = B$, where $Asucc 0, Bsucc 0$











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I want show that $${xmid x^TAxleq 1}_{epsilon_A} = {xmid x^TBxleq 1}_{epsilon_B} Rightarrow A = B,$$ where $Asucc 0, Bsucc 0$ (positive definite).



Can I prove this by arguing the following?




  1. We know $epsilon_A$, $epsilon_B$ are ellipsoids.

  2. Let eigen-decomposition of $A$ be $A = QLambda Q^T$.

  3. We know for the set $epsilon_A$, the semi-axis is $a_i = lambda_i^{-1/2}q_i$

  4. Due to $epsilon_A = epsilon_B$, so both have the same semi-axis, i.e., $b_i = lambda_i^{-1/2}q_i$.


  5. $A$ and $B$ have the same eigenvectors and eigenvalues


  6. $A = B$.


Could anyone please give me any suggestions?










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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite












    I want show that $${xmid x^TAxleq 1}_{epsilon_A} = {xmid x^TBxleq 1}_{epsilon_B} Rightarrow A = B,$$ where $Asucc 0, Bsucc 0$ (positive definite).



    Can I prove this by arguing the following?




    1. We know $epsilon_A$, $epsilon_B$ are ellipsoids.

    2. Let eigen-decomposition of $A$ be $A = QLambda Q^T$.

    3. We know for the set $epsilon_A$, the semi-axis is $a_i = lambda_i^{-1/2}q_i$

    4. Due to $epsilon_A = epsilon_B$, so both have the same semi-axis, i.e., $b_i = lambda_i^{-1/2}q_i$.


    5. $A$ and $B$ have the same eigenvectors and eigenvalues


    6. $A = B$.


    Could anyone please give me any suggestions?










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      I want show that $${xmid x^TAxleq 1}_{epsilon_A} = {xmid x^TBxleq 1}_{epsilon_B} Rightarrow A = B,$$ where $Asucc 0, Bsucc 0$ (positive definite).



      Can I prove this by arguing the following?




      1. We know $epsilon_A$, $epsilon_B$ are ellipsoids.

      2. Let eigen-decomposition of $A$ be $A = QLambda Q^T$.

      3. We know for the set $epsilon_A$, the semi-axis is $a_i = lambda_i^{-1/2}q_i$

      4. Due to $epsilon_A = epsilon_B$, so both have the same semi-axis, i.e., $b_i = lambda_i^{-1/2}q_i$.


      5. $A$ and $B$ have the same eigenvectors and eigenvalues


      6. $A = B$.


      Could anyone please give me any suggestions?










      share|cite|improve this question













      I want show that $${xmid x^TAxleq 1}_{epsilon_A} = {xmid x^TBxleq 1}_{epsilon_B} Rightarrow A = B,$$ where $Asucc 0, Bsucc 0$ (positive definite).



      Can I prove this by arguing the following?




      1. We know $epsilon_A$, $epsilon_B$ are ellipsoids.

      2. Let eigen-decomposition of $A$ be $A = QLambda Q^T$.

      3. We know for the set $epsilon_A$, the semi-axis is $a_i = lambda_i^{-1/2}q_i$

      4. Due to $epsilon_A = epsilon_B$, so both have the same semi-axis, i.e., $b_i = lambda_i^{-1/2}q_i$.


      5. $A$ and $B$ have the same eigenvectors and eigenvalues


      6. $A = B$.


      Could anyone please give me any suggestions?







      matrices quadratic-forms positive-definite






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      asked Dec 5 at 3:10









      sleeve chen

      3,01041851




      3,01041851






















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          For $xne 0$, the quadratic form $Q_A(x)=x^TAx$ can be evaluated by observing that $Q_A(tx)=t^2Q_A(x)$ and hence $$Q_A(x)=inf{t^{-2}: Q_A(tx)le 1} = inf { t^{-2}: txin epsilon_A}.$$ Since $epsilon_A=epsilon_B$, the quadratic forms $Q_A(x)$ and $Q_B(x)$ are equal. Hence the corresponding bilinear forms $x^TAy$ and $x^TBy$ are equal, and finally the matrices $A$ and $B$.






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            For $xne 0$, the quadratic form $Q_A(x)=x^TAx$ can be evaluated by observing that $Q_A(tx)=t^2Q_A(x)$ and hence $$Q_A(x)=inf{t^{-2}: Q_A(tx)le 1} = inf { t^{-2}: txin epsilon_A}.$$ Since $epsilon_A=epsilon_B$, the quadratic forms $Q_A(x)$ and $Q_B(x)$ are equal. Hence the corresponding bilinear forms $x^TAy$ and $x^TBy$ are equal, and finally the matrices $A$ and $B$.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              1
              down vote



              accepted










              For $xne 0$, the quadratic form $Q_A(x)=x^TAx$ can be evaluated by observing that $Q_A(tx)=t^2Q_A(x)$ and hence $$Q_A(x)=inf{t^{-2}: Q_A(tx)le 1} = inf { t^{-2}: txin epsilon_A}.$$ Since $epsilon_A=epsilon_B$, the quadratic forms $Q_A(x)$ and $Q_B(x)$ are equal. Hence the corresponding bilinear forms $x^TAy$ and $x^TBy$ are equal, and finally the matrices $A$ and $B$.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted






                For $xne 0$, the quadratic form $Q_A(x)=x^TAx$ can be evaluated by observing that $Q_A(tx)=t^2Q_A(x)$ and hence $$Q_A(x)=inf{t^{-2}: Q_A(tx)le 1} = inf { t^{-2}: txin epsilon_A}.$$ Since $epsilon_A=epsilon_B$, the quadratic forms $Q_A(x)$ and $Q_B(x)$ are equal. Hence the corresponding bilinear forms $x^TAy$ and $x^TBy$ are equal, and finally the matrices $A$ and $B$.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                For $xne 0$, the quadratic form $Q_A(x)=x^TAx$ can be evaluated by observing that $Q_A(tx)=t^2Q_A(x)$ and hence $$Q_A(x)=inf{t^{-2}: Q_A(tx)le 1} = inf { t^{-2}: txin epsilon_A}.$$ Since $epsilon_A=epsilon_B$, the quadratic forms $Q_A(x)$ and $Q_B(x)$ are equal. Hence the corresponding bilinear forms $x^TAy$ and $x^TBy$ are equal, and finally the matrices $A$ and $B$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 5 at 3:54









                kimchi lover

                9,54131128




                9,54131128






























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