Calculating convergence of a sum











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I have the sum:
$$S=sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{n!}{n^n}$$
and I am using D'Alembert's test for convergence which states for some sum:
$$sum_{n=a}^infty u_n,,(aneqpminfty)$$
that it is convergent if:
$$lim_{ntoinfty}left|frac{u_{n+1}}{u_n}right|<1$$
so to begin with I know that:
$$L=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{frac{(n+1)!}{(n+1)^{n+1}}}{frac{n!}{n^n}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{n^n}{(n+1)^n}$$
Up to this point is fine but I am unsure if what I have done next is correct:
$$ln(L)=lim_{ntoinfty}nlnleft(frac{n}{n+1}right)=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{lnleft(1-frac{1}{n+1}right)}{frac{1}{n}}$$
now I used the substitution $u=frac{1}{n+1}$ and with rearrangement I believe I can obtain:
$$ln(L)=lim_{uto0}frac{(1-u)ln(1-u)}{u}$$
now since when $uto0$ both the top and bottom also tend to $0$ I can use L'Hopitals rule:
$$ln(L)=lim_{uto0}frac{-1-ln(1-u)}{1}=lim_{uto0}-bigl(1+ln(1-u)bigr)=-1$$
which now gives:
$$ln(L)=-1therefore L=e^{-1}approx0.368<1$$
and so there is convergence



In the question it states that I will have to use:
$$lim_{ntoinfty}left(1+frac1nright)^n=e$$










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    I have the sum:
    $$S=sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{n!}{n^n}$$
    and I am using D'Alembert's test for convergence which states for some sum:
    $$sum_{n=a}^infty u_n,,(aneqpminfty)$$
    that it is convergent if:
    $$lim_{ntoinfty}left|frac{u_{n+1}}{u_n}right|<1$$
    so to begin with I know that:
    $$L=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{frac{(n+1)!}{(n+1)^{n+1}}}{frac{n!}{n^n}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{n^n}{(n+1)^n}$$
    Up to this point is fine but I am unsure if what I have done next is correct:
    $$ln(L)=lim_{ntoinfty}nlnleft(frac{n}{n+1}right)=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{lnleft(1-frac{1}{n+1}right)}{frac{1}{n}}$$
    now I used the substitution $u=frac{1}{n+1}$ and with rearrangement I believe I can obtain:
    $$ln(L)=lim_{uto0}frac{(1-u)ln(1-u)}{u}$$
    now since when $uto0$ both the top and bottom also tend to $0$ I can use L'Hopitals rule:
    $$ln(L)=lim_{uto0}frac{-1-ln(1-u)}{1}=lim_{uto0}-bigl(1+ln(1-u)bigr)=-1$$
    which now gives:
    $$ln(L)=-1therefore L=e^{-1}approx0.368<1$$
    and so there is convergence



    In the question it states that I will have to use:
    $$lim_{ntoinfty}left(1+frac1nright)^n=e$$










    share|cite|improve this question
























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      I have the sum:
      $$S=sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{n!}{n^n}$$
      and I am using D'Alembert's test for convergence which states for some sum:
      $$sum_{n=a}^infty u_n,,(aneqpminfty)$$
      that it is convergent if:
      $$lim_{ntoinfty}left|frac{u_{n+1}}{u_n}right|<1$$
      so to begin with I know that:
      $$L=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{frac{(n+1)!}{(n+1)^{n+1}}}{frac{n!}{n^n}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{n^n}{(n+1)^n}$$
      Up to this point is fine but I am unsure if what I have done next is correct:
      $$ln(L)=lim_{ntoinfty}nlnleft(frac{n}{n+1}right)=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{lnleft(1-frac{1}{n+1}right)}{frac{1}{n}}$$
      now I used the substitution $u=frac{1}{n+1}$ and with rearrangement I believe I can obtain:
      $$ln(L)=lim_{uto0}frac{(1-u)ln(1-u)}{u}$$
      now since when $uto0$ both the top and bottom also tend to $0$ I can use L'Hopitals rule:
      $$ln(L)=lim_{uto0}frac{-1-ln(1-u)}{1}=lim_{uto0}-bigl(1+ln(1-u)bigr)=-1$$
      which now gives:
      $$ln(L)=-1therefore L=e^{-1}approx0.368<1$$
      and so there is convergence



      In the question it states that I will have to use:
      $$lim_{ntoinfty}left(1+frac1nright)^n=e$$










      share|cite|improve this question













      I have the sum:
      $$S=sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{n!}{n^n}$$
      and I am using D'Alembert's test for convergence which states for some sum:
      $$sum_{n=a}^infty u_n,,(aneqpminfty)$$
      that it is convergent if:
      $$lim_{ntoinfty}left|frac{u_{n+1}}{u_n}right|<1$$
      so to begin with I know that:
      $$L=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{frac{(n+1)!}{(n+1)^{n+1}}}{frac{n!}{n^n}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{n^n}{(n+1)^n}$$
      Up to this point is fine but I am unsure if what I have done next is correct:
      $$ln(L)=lim_{ntoinfty}nlnleft(frac{n}{n+1}right)=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{lnleft(1-frac{1}{n+1}right)}{frac{1}{n}}$$
      now I used the substitution $u=frac{1}{n+1}$ and with rearrangement I believe I can obtain:
      $$ln(L)=lim_{uto0}frac{(1-u)ln(1-u)}{u}$$
      now since when $uto0$ both the top and bottom also tend to $0$ I can use L'Hopitals rule:
      $$ln(L)=lim_{uto0}frac{-1-ln(1-u)}{1}=lim_{uto0}-bigl(1+ln(1-u)bigr)=-1$$
      which now gives:
      $$ln(L)=-1therefore L=e^{-1}approx0.368<1$$
      and so there is convergence



      In the question it states that I will have to use:
      $$lim_{ntoinfty}left(1+frac1nright)^n=e$$







      convergence summation






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      asked Dec 5 at 0:49









      Henry Lee

      1,707218




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          2 Answers
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          accepted










          Yes, that looks right.



          Note that
          $$lim_{ntoinfty}frac{n^n}{(n+1)^n}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{1}{(1+frac{1}{n})^n}=frac{1}{e}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Yes that's correct, more simply form here



            $$frac{n^n}{(n+1)^n}=frac1{left(1+frac1nright)^n} to frac1e$$






            share|cite|improve this answer





















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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes








              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted










              Yes, that looks right.



              Note that
              $$lim_{ntoinfty}frac{n^n}{(n+1)^n}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{1}{(1+frac{1}{n})^n}=frac{1}{e}$$






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted










                Yes, that looks right.



                Note that
                $$lim_{ntoinfty}frac{n^n}{(n+1)^n}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{1}{(1+frac{1}{n})^n}=frac{1}{e}$$






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote



                  accepted







                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote



                  accepted






                  Yes, that looks right.



                  Note that
                  $$lim_{ntoinfty}frac{n^n}{(n+1)^n}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{1}{(1+frac{1}{n})^n}=frac{1}{e}$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Yes, that looks right.



                  Note that
                  $$lim_{ntoinfty}frac{n^n}{(n+1)^n}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{1}{(1+frac{1}{n})^n}=frac{1}{e}$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 5 at 0:51









                  N. S.

                  101k5108203




                  101k5108203






















                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote













                      Yes that's correct, more simply form here



                      $$frac{n^n}{(n+1)^n}=frac1{left(1+frac1nright)^n} to frac1e$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        Yes that's correct, more simply form here



                        $$frac{n^n}{(n+1)^n}=frac1{left(1+frac1nright)^n} to frac1e$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote









                          Yes that's correct, more simply form here



                          $$frac{n^n}{(n+1)^n}=frac1{left(1+frac1nright)^n} to frac1e$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          Yes that's correct, more simply form here



                          $$frac{n^n}{(n+1)^n}=frac1{left(1+frac1nright)^n} to frac1e$$







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Dec 5 at 0:52









                          gimusi

                          92.7k94495




                          92.7k94495






























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