A question on the sums of finite subsequences of a sequence of positive reals












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Let $(a_n)_{ngeq 1}$ be a sequence of positive real numbers such that $a_nrightarrow 0$ and $sumlimits_{i=1}^{infty}a_i$ is divergent. Prove that the set containing the sums of all $finite$ subsequences of $a_n$ is dense in $[0,infty)$.



I know that a similar result holds. More exactly, under the same hypothesis, it was proved that the set containing the sums of $all$ subsequences (so, besides the finite subsequences, we also have the infinite ones) of $a_n$ is actually the interval $[0,infty)$. Any hint/suggestion is appreciated.










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    Let $(a_n)_{ngeq 1}$ be a sequence of positive real numbers such that $a_nrightarrow 0$ and $sumlimits_{i=1}^{infty}a_i$ is divergent. Prove that the set containing the sums of all $finite$ subsequences of $a_n$ is dense in $[0,infty)$.



    I know that a similar result holds. More exactly, under the same hypothesis, it was proved that the set containing the sums of $all$ subsequences (so, besides the finite subsequences, we also have the infinite ones) of $a_n$ is actually the interval $[0,infty)$. Any hint/suggestion is appreciated.










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      Let $(a_n)_{ngeq 1}$ be a sequence of positive real numbers such that $a_nrightarrow 0$ and $sumlimits_{i=1}^{infty}a_i$ is divergent. Prove that the set containing the sums of all $finite$ subsequences of $a_n$ is dense in $[0,infty)$.



      I know that a similar result holds. More exactly, under the same hypothesis, it was proved that the set containing the sums of $all$ subsequences (so, besides the finite subsequences, we also have the infinite ones) of $a_n$ is actually the interval $[0,infty)$. Any hint/suggestion is appreciated.










      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $(a_n)_{ngeq 1}$ be a sequence of positive real numbers such that $a_nrightarrow 0$ and $sumlimits_{i=1}^{infty}a_i$ is divergent. Prove that the set containing the sums of all $finite$ subsequences of $a_n$ is dense in $[0,infty)$.



      I know that a similar result holds. More exactly, under the same hypothesis, it was proved that the set containing the sums of $all$ subsequences (so, besides the finite subsequences, we also have the infinite ones) of $a_n$ is actually the interval $[0,infty)$. Any hint/suggestion is appreciated.







      sequences-and-series






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      asked Dec 9 '18 at 20:02









      Muffin

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          Well, you have almost everything you need. Let $xin[0,infty)$ and let $epsilon>0$. We want to show that there is a finite subsequence of $(a_n)$ such that the sum of its elements is in the interval $(x-epsilon, x+epsilon)$. As you already know $x$ is the sum of all elements in a subsequence $(a_{n_k})$ of $a_n$. If the subsequence is finite then we are done because $sum a_{n_k}=xin(x-epsilon, x+epsilon)$ and that's what we need. Now suppose the subsequence is infinite. We still know that $sum_{k=1}^infty a_{n_k}=x$. An equivalent way to write it is $lim_{Mtoinfty}sum_{k=1}^M a_{n_k}=x$. By the definition of the limit we can pick a large enough $M$ such that $sum_{k=1}^M a_{n_k}in(x-epsilon,x+epsilon)$. And $(a_{n_k})_{k=1}^M$ is a finite subsequence of $(a_n)$.






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            1














            You mentioned a result that has been proved, but I don't think it has been; the set containing the sums of all subsequences cannot be equal to $[0,infty)$, as there is no subsequence which sums to $0$. Hopefully just a typo on your part?



            Other than that the proof idea is the exact same. Pick a positive real $r>0$, and show you can "greedily" pick a finite subsequence of $a_n$ that sums to something in the range $(r-epsilon,r)$ for any $epsilon>0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • You're right. I should have stated that the set containing the sum of the zero sequence and the sums of the subsequences of $a_n$ is $[0,infty)$.
              – Muffin
              Dec 9 '18 at 20:32











            Your Answer





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            2 Answers
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            active

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            active

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            active

            oldest

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            1














            Well, you have almost everything you need. Let $xin[0,infty)$ and let $epsilon>0$. We want to show that there is a finite subsequence of $(a_n)$ such that the sum of its elements is in the interval $(x-epsilon, x+epsilon)$. As you already know $x$ is the sum of all elements in a subsequence $(a_{n_k})$ of $a_n$. If the subsequence is finite then we are done because $sum a_{n_k}=xin(x-epsilon, x+epsilon)$ and that's what we need. Now suppose the subsequence is infinite. We still know that $sum_{k=1}^infty a_{n_k}=x$. An equivalent way to write it is $lim_{Mtoinfty}sum_{k=1}^M a_{n_k}=x$. By the definition of the limit we can pick a large enough $M$ such that $sum_{k=1}^M a_{n_k}in(x-epsilon,x+epsilon)$. And $(a_{n_k})_{k=1}^M$ is a finite subsequence of $(a_n)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer


























              1














              Well, you have almost everything you need. Let $xin[0,infty)$ and let $epsilon>0$. We want to show that there is a finite subsequence of $(a_n)$ such that the sum of its elements is in the interval $(x-epsilon, x+epsilon)$. As you already know $x$ is the sum of all elements in a subsequence $(a_{n_k})$ of $a_n$. If the subsequence is finite then we are done because $sum a_{n_k}=xin(x-epsilon, x+epsilon)$ and that's what we need. Now suppose the subsequence is infinite. We still know that $sum_{k=1}^infty a_{n_k}=x$. An equivalent way to write it is $lim_{Mtoinfty}sum_{k=1}^M a_{n_k}=x$. By the definition of the limit we can pick a large enough $M$ such that $sum_{k=1}^M a_{n_k}in(x-epsilon,x+epsilon)$. And $(a_{n_k})_{k=1}^M$ is a finite subsequence of $(a_n)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                1












                1








                1






                Well, you have almost everything you need. Let $xin[0,infty)$ and let $epsilon>0$. We want to show that there is a finite subsequence of $(a_n)$ such that the sum of its elements is in the interval $(x-epsilon, x+epsilon)$. As you already know $x$ is the sum of all elements in a subsequence $(a_{n_k})$ of $a_n$. If the subsequence is finite then we are done because $sum a_{n_k}=xin(x-epsilon, x+epsilon)$ and that's what we need. Now suppose the subsequence is infinite. We still know that $sum_{k=1}^infty a_{n_k}=x$. An equivalent way to write it is $lim_{Mtoinfty}sum_{k=1}^M a_{n_k}=x$. By the definition of the limit we can pick a large enough $M$ such that $sum_{k=1}^M a_{n_k}in(x-epsilon,x+epsilon)$. And $(a_{n_k})_{k=1}^M$ is a finite subsequence of $(a_n)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Well, you have almost everything you need. Let $xin[0,infty)$ and let $epsilon>0$. We want to show that there is a finite subsequence of $(a_n)$ such that the sum of its elements is in the interval $(x-epsilon, x+epsilon)$. As you already know $x$ is the sum of all elements in a subsequence $(a_{n_k})$ of $a_n$. If the subsequence is finite then we are done because $sum a_{n_k}=xin(x-epsilon, x+epsilon)$ and that's what we need. Now suppose the subsequence is infinite. We still know that $sum_{k=1}^infty a_{n_k}=x$. An equivalent way to write it is $lim_{Mtoinfty}sum_{k=1}^M a_{n_k}=x$. By the definition of the limit we can pick a large enough $M$ such that $sum_{k=1}^M a_{n_k}in(x-epsilon,x+epsilon)$. And $(a_{n_k})_{k=1}^M$ is a finite subsequence of $(a_n)$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












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                answered Dec 9 '18 at 20:14









                Mark

                6,015415




                6,015415























                    1














                    You mentioned a result that has been proved, but I don't think it has been; the set containing the sums of all subsequences cannot be equal to $[0,infty)$, as there is no subsequence which sums to $0$. Hopefully just a typo on your part?



                    Other than that the proof idea is the exact same. Pick a positive real $r>0$, and show you can "greedily" pick a finite subsequence of $a_n$ that sums to something in the range $(r-epsilon,r)$ for any $epsilon>0$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer





















                    • You're right. I should have stated that the set containing the sum of the zero sequence and the sums of the subsequences of $a_n$ is $[0,infty)$.
                      – Muffin
                      Dec 9 '18 at 20:32
















                    1














                    You mentioned a result that has been proved, but I don't think it has been; the set containing the sums of all subsequences cannot be equal to $[0,infty)$, as there is no subsequence which sums to $0$. Hopefully just a typo on your part?



                    Other than that the proof idea is the exact same. Pick a positive real $r>0$, and show you can "greedily" pick a finite subsequence of $a_n$ that sums to something in the range $(r-epsilon,r)$ for any $epsilon>0$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer





















                    • You're right. I should have stated that the set containing the sum of the zero sequence and the sums of the subsequences of $a_n$ is $[0,infty)$.
                      – Muffin
                      Dec 9 '18 at 20:32














                    1












                    1








                    1






                    You mentioned a result that has been proved, but I don't think it has been; the set containing the sums of all subsequences cannot be equal to $[0,infty)$, as there is no subsequence which sums to $0$. Hopefully just a typo on your part?



                    Other than that the proof idea is the exact same. Pick a positive real $r>0$, and show you can "greedily" pick a finite subsequence of $a_n$ that sums to something in the range $(r-epsilon,r)$ for any $epsilon>0$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    You mentioned a result that has been proved, but I don't think it has been; the set containing the sums of all subsequences cannot be equal to $[0,infty)$, as there is no subsequence which sums to $0$. Hopefully just a typo on your part?



                    Other than that the proof idea is the exact same. Pick a positive real $r>0$, and show you can "greedily" pick a finite subsequence of $a_n$ that sums to something in the range $(r-epsilon,r)$ for any $epsilon>0$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Dec 9 '18 at 20:14









                    GenericMathematician

                    863




                    863












                    • You're right. I should have stated that the set containing the sum of the zero sequence and the sums of the subsequences of $a_n$ is $[0,infty)$.
                      – Muffin
                      Dec 9 '18 at 20:32


















                    • You're right. I should have stated that the set containing the sum of the zero sequence and the sums of the subsequences of $a_n$ is $[0,infty)$.
                      – Muffin
                      Dec 9 '18 at 20:32
















                    You're right. I should have stated that the set containing the sum of the zero sequence and the sums of the subsequences of $a_n$ is $[0,infty)$.
                    – Muffin
                    Dec 9 '18 at 20:32




                    You're right. I should have stated that the set containing the sum of the zero sequence and the sums of the subsequences of $a_n$ is $[0,infty)$.
                    – Muffin
                    Dec 9 '18 at 20:32


















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