Calculate area of triangle in space given points
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Problem 5. a) Find the area of the space triangle with vertices $P_0, P_1, P_2$:
$$ P_0 = (2,1,0), P_1=(1,0,1), P_2=(2,-1,1) $$
My current solution is to use $frac{1}{2}Big|(P_1-P_0)×(P_2-P_0)Big|$, which is great but leaves me wanting for a more elegant solution similar to taking the determinant for triangles in the plane.
Is there a better solution, either in terms of elegance or ease of mental calculation?
vectors area
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Problem 5. a) Find the area of the space triangle with vertices $P_0, P_1, P_2$:
$$ P_0 = (2,1,0), P_1=(1,0,1), P_2=(2,-1,1) $$
My current solution is to use $frac{1}{2}Big|(P_1-P_0)×(P_2-P_0)Big|$, which is great but leaves me wanting for a more elegant solution similar to taking the determinant for triangles in the plane.
Is there a better solution, either in terms of elegance or ease of mental calculation?
vectors area
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The linked question answers in 2D, you could do the same for 3D.
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– StubbornAtom
Aug 17 '16 at 16:49
1
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Isn't $left( {{P_1} - {P_0}} right) times left( {{P_2} - {P_0}} right)$ a vector?
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– ITA
Aug 17 '16 at 16:51
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@IvanAbraham: Whoops. Indeed it is. Edited.
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– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:30
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@StubbornAtom: That's what I thought, but I haven't yet been able to wrap my head around how you would do that.
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– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:32
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$$ begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1 \ x_0 & x_1 & x_2 \ y_0 & y_1 & y_2 \ z_0 & z_1 & z_2 end{bmatrix} $$ isn't square, so has no determinant.
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– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:34
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Problem 5. a) Find the area of the space triangle with vertices $P_0, P_1, P_2$:
$$ P_0 = (2,1,0), P_1=(1,0,1), P_2=(2,-1,1) $$
My current solution is to use $frac{1}{2}Big|(P_1-P_0)×(P_2-P_0)Big|$, which is great but leaves me wanting for a more elegant solution similar to taking the determinant for triangles in the plane.
Is there a better solution, either in terms of elegance or ease of mental calculation?
vectors area
$endgroup$
Problem 5. a) Find the area of the space triangle with vertices $P_0, P_1, P_2$:
$$ P_0 = (2,1,0), P_1=(1,0,1), P_2=(2,-1,1) $$
My current solution is to use $frac{1}{2}Big|(P_1-P_0)×(P_2-P_0)Big|$, which is great but leaves me wanting for a more elegant solution similar to taking the determinant for triangles in the plane.
Is there a better solution, either in terms of elegance or ease of mental calculation?
vectors area
vectors area
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:20
Community♦
1
1
asked Aug 17 '16 at 16:46
ZazZaz
5481826
5481826
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The linked question answers in 2D, you could do the same for 3D.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Aug 17 '16 at 16:49
1
$begingroup$
Isn't $left( {{P_1} - {P_0}} right) times left( {{P_2} - {P_0}} right)$ a vector?
$endgroup$
– ITA
Aug 17 '16 at 16:51
$begingroup$
@IvanAbraham: Whoops. Indeed it is. Edited.
$endgroup$
– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:30
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@StubbornAtom: That's what I thought, but I haven't yet been able to wrap my head around how you would do that.
$endgroup$
– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:32
$begingroup$
$$ begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1 \ x_0 & x_1 & x_2 \ y_0 & y_1 & y_2 \ z_0 & z_1 & z_2 end{bmatrix} $$ isn't square, so has no determinant.
$endgroup$
– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:34
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The linked question answers in 2D, you could do the same for 3D.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Aug 17 '16 at 16:49
1
$begingroup$
Isn't $left( {{P_1} - {P_0}} right) times left( {{P_2} - {P_0}} right)$ a vector?
$endgroup$
– ITA
Aug 17 '16 at 16:51
$begingroup$
@IvanAbraham: Whoops. Indeed it is. Edited.
$endgroup$
– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:30
$begingroup$
@StubbornAtom: That's what I thought, but I haven't yet been able to wrap my head around how you would do that.
$endgroup$
– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:32
$begingroup$
$$ begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1 \ x_0 & x_1 & x_2 \ y_0 & y_1 & y_2 \ z_0 & z_1 & z_2 end{bmatrix} $$ isn't square, so has no determinant.
$endgroup$
– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:34
$begingroup$
The linked question answers in 2D, you could do the same for 3D.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Aug 17 '16 at 16:49
$begingroup$
The linked question answers in 2D, you could do the same for 3D.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Aug 17 '16 at 16:49
1
1
$begingroup$
Isn't $left( {{P_1} - {P_0}} right) times left( {{P_2} - {P_0}} right)$ a vector?
$endgroup$
– ITA
Aug 17 '16 at 16:51
$begingroup$
Isn't $left( {{P_1} - {P_0}} right) times left( {{P_2} - {P_0}} right)$ a vector?
$endgroup$
– ITA
Aug 17 '16 at 16:51
$begingroup$
@IvanAbraham: Whoops. Indeed it is. Edited.
$endgroup$
– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:30
$begingroup$
@IvanAbraham: Whoops. Indeed it is. Edited.
$endgroup$
– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:30
$begingroup$
@StubbornAtom: That's what I thought, but I haven't yet been able to wrap my head around how you would do that.
$endgroup$
– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:32
$begingroup$
@StubbornAtom: That's what I thought, but I haven't yet been able to wrap my head around how you would do that.
$endgroup$
– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:32
$begingroup$
$$ begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1 \ x_0 & x_1 & x_2 \ y_0 & y_1 & y_2 \ z_0 & z_1 & z_2 end{bmatrix} $$ isn't square, so has no determinant.
$endgroup$
– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:34
$begingroup$
$$ begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1 \ x_0 & x_1 & x_2 \ y_0 & y_1 & y_2 \ z_0 & z_1 & z_2 end{bmatrix} $$ isn't square, so has no determinant.
$endgroup$
– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:34
add a comment |
2 Answers
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oldest
votes
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I like your solution, but another way to do it would be to compute the lengths of the sides using the distance formula, and then use Heron's formula.
http://www.mathopenref.com/heronsformula.html
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add a comment |
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Even if we stick with cross products, we can make the result considerably more elegant in the sense of making the symmetry in indices manifest, viz.$$(P_1-P_0)times (P_2-P_0)=P_1times P_2-P_1times P_0-P_0times P_2+P_0times P_0\=P_0times P_1+P_1times P_2+P_2times P_0.$$
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add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
I like your solution, but another way to do it would be to compute the lengths of the sides using the distance formula, and then use Heron's formula.
http://www.mathopenref.com/heronsformula.html
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I like your solution, but another way to do it would be to compute the lengths of the sides using the distance formula, and then use Heron's formula.
http://www.mathopenref.com/heronsformula.html
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I like your solution, but another way to do it would be to compute the lengths of the sides using the distance formula, and then use Heron's formula.
http://www.mathopenref.com/heronsformula.html
$endgroup$
I like your solution, but another way to do it would be to compute the lengths of the sides using the distance formula, and then use Heron's formula.
http://www.mathopenref.com/heronsformula.html
answered Aug 17 '16 at 16:49
Alfred YergerAlfred Yerger
10.5k2249
10.5k2249
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$begingroup$
Even if we stick with cross products, we can make the result considerably more elegant in the sense of making the symmetry in indices manifest, viz.$$(P_1-P_0)times (P_2-P_0)=P_1times P_2-P_1times P_0-P_0times P_2+P_0times P_0\=P_0times P_1+P_1times P_2+P_2times P_0.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Even if we stick with cross products, we can make the result considerably more elegant in the sense of making the symmetry in indices manifest, viz.$$(P_1-P_0)times (P_2-P_0)=P_1times P_2-P_1times P_0-P_0times P_2+P_0times P_0\=P_0times P_1+P_1times P_2+P_2times P_0.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Even if we stick with cross products, we can make the result considerably more elegant in the sense of making the symmetry in indices manifest, viz.$$(P_1-P_0)times (P_2-P_0)=P_1times P_2-P_1times P_0-P_0times P_2+P_0times P_0\=P_0times P_1+P_1times P_2+P_2times P_0.$$
$endgroup$
Even if we stick with cross products, we can make the result considerably more elegant in the sense of making the symmetry in indices manifest, viz.$$(P_1-P_0)times (P_2-P_0)=P_1times P_2-P_1times P_0-P_0times P_2+P_0times P_0\=P_0times P_1+P_1times P_2+P_2times P_0.$$
answered Jan 5 at 9:04
J.G.J.G.
30.5k23149
30.5k23149
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
The linked question answers in 2D, you could do the same for 3D.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Aug 17 '16 at 16:49
1
$begingroup$
Isn't $left( {{P_1} - {P_0}} right) times left( {{P_2} - {P_0}} right)$ a vector?
$endgroup$
– ITA
Aug 17 '16 at 16:51
$begingroup$
@IvanAbraham: Whoops. Indeed it is. Edited.
$endgroup$
– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:30
$begingroup$
@StubbornAtom: That's what I thought, but I haven't yet been able to wrap my head around how you would do that.
$endgroup$
– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:32
$begingroup$
$$ begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1 \ x_0 & x_1 & x_2 \ y_0 & y_1 & y_2 \ z_0 & z_1 & z_2 end{bmatrix} $$ isn't square, so has no determinant.
$endgroup$
– Zaz
Aug 17 '16 at 17:34