Is Theorem 1.19 in Rudin's Analysis missing to show that $R=mathbb{R}$?
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I studied line-by-line of the proof of the Theorem 1.19 in the book of Principles of Mathematical Analysis (3rd ed) by Rudin. It shows that there is a proper superset of $mathbb{Q}$ such that it is an ordered field and has the least-upper-bound property. It doesn't prove that this proper superset is $mathbb{R}$.
Am I missing something? or, the constructed $R$ can be a proper subset of $mathbb{R}$?
real-analysis proof-explanation
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I studied line-by-line of the proof of the Theorem 1.19 in the book of Principles of Mathematical Analysis (3rd ed) by Rudin. It shows that there is a proper superset of $mathbb{Q}$ such that it is an ordered field and has the least-upper-bound property. It doesn't prove that this proper superset is $mathbb{R}$.
Am I missing something? or, the constructed $R$ can be a proper subset of $mathbb{R}$?
real-analysis proof-explanation
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I studied line-by-line of the proof of the Theorem 1.19 in the book of Principles of Mathematical Analysis (3rd ed) by Rudin. It shows that there is a proper superset of $mathbb{Q}$ such that it is an ordered field and has the least-upper-bound property. It doesn't prove that this proper superset is $mathbb{R}$.
Am I missing something? or, the constructed $R$ can be a proper subset of $mathbb{R}$?
real-analysis proof-explanation
$endgroup$
I studied line-by-line of the proof of the Theorem 1.19 in the book of Principles of Mathematical Analysis (3rd ed) by Rudin. It shows that there is a proper superset of $mathbb{Q}$ such that it is an ordered field and has the least-upper-bound property. It doesn't prove that this proper superset is $mathbb{R}$.
Am I missing something? or, the constructed $R$ can be a proper subset of $mathbb{R}$?
real-analysis proof-explanation
real-analysis proof-explanation
asked Jan 5 at 8:00
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267117
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2 Answers
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Since the ordered field with the least upper bound property is unique up to order preserving isomorphisms, Rudin defines $mathbb R$ as $R$ assuming this.
A sketch proof of this result goes as follows: we assume $mathbb R$ has been constructed (using theorem 1.19) and let $R$ be another ordered field with the least upper bound property.
Since $1 in R,$ we get $n = 1 + 1 + dots + 1 in R$ also. This gives a map $varphi : mathbb N rightarrow R.$ Since $varphi(n) < varphi(m)$ whenever $n < m,$ this map is an injection.
Since $-1 in R$ defined by $1 + (-1) = 0,$ and $(-1) times n = -n in R$ for any $n in mathbb N,$ this map $varphi$ extends to a map $mathbb Z rightarrow mathbb R.$ Again using the ordered field property, this remains an injection.
If $p/q in mathbb Q$ with $p,q in mathbb Z$ and $q neq 0,$ we get $varphi$ extends to a map $mathbb Q rightarrow R$ by sending $varphi(p/q) = varphi(p)/varphi(q).$ Note that this map is an injection by construction. Note $varphi(p/q) = 0$ if and only if $varphi(p)=0,$ so the map remains an injection. Also $varphi$ can be checked to be a order-preserving homomorphism of fields, so $varphi(a)<varphi(b)$ if $a<b,$ $varphi(ab) = varphi(a)varphi(b),$ $varphi(a+b) = varphi(a)+varphi(b)$ and $varphi(c^{-1}) = varphi(c)^{-1}$ whenever $c neq 0.$
Up until now what we did was completely algebraic, and showed any such field contains a copy of $mathbb Q$ by the above construction. We now want to extend this to all of $mathbb R$ and show the extension is bijective.
If $x in mathbb R,$ recall that using Rudin's definition via Dedekind cuts, $x$ satisfies,
$$ x = {a in mathbb Q : a < x }. $$
Then we define $overline{varphi} : mathbb R rightarrow R$ by sending,
$$ overline{varphi}(x) = sup{ varphi(a) : a in mathbb Q, a < x }. $$
Note this makes sense because $R$ has the least upper bound property, so we can take suprema (and by the archimedian property of $mathbb R,$ this is bounded above by $varphi(n)$ with $n > x$ an integer).To show $overline{varphi}$ is injective, it is useful to show that for any $A subset mathbb Q$ bounded above we have,
$$ sup varphi(A) = overline{varphi}(sup A). $$
Using this, it shouldn't be too hard to show that $overline{varphi}$ is also an order preserving field homomorphism $mathbb R rightarrow R$ which agrees with $varphi$ when restricted to $mathbb Q.$Finally to show surjectivity, let $y in R.$ By the Archimedian property, the set,
$$ A = {a in varphi(mathbb Q) : a < y } $$
is bounded from above, so $sup A = z in R$ exists. Then $z leq y,$ and we wish to show they are equal. If not, by the archimedian property (applied to $1/(y-z)$) there is $n in mathbb N$ such that $z + varphi(n)^{-1} < y.$ But this implies that,
$$ A = { a + varphi(n)^{-1} : a in varphi(mathbb Q), a < y }. $$
But then $a + varphi(n)^{-1} < y$ whenever $a in varphi(mathbb Q)$ such that $a< y,$ so iteratively applying this gives $a + varphi(m)varphi(n)^{-1} < y$ for all $a in A$ and $m in mathbb N.$ But this contradicts the archimedian property of $R$, which asserts that there is $N in mathbb N$ such that $y < N.$
Hence $y = z,$ so if we let,
$$ B = {b in mathbb Q : varphi(b) < y}, $$
we get $overline{varphi}(sup B) = y.$ So $overlinevarphi$ is an isomorphism.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Defining a Dedekind cut as $x = {a in mathbb Q : a < x }$ is really not good... It assumes that you already have the reals before defining those. Where is that $x$ coming from?
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 5 at 10:22
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@mathcounterexamples.net I worded it incorrectly (indeed it is not by definition), but I am assuming the reals have already been constructed. In that case x does satisfy the claimed property, which is what I want to use. I'll clarify things in an edit.
$endgroup$
– ktoi
Jan 5 at 13:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I don’t have Rudin book at hand.
However an important theorem that he probably uses is that an ordered Archimedean field having the upper bound property is unique up to isomorphism.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
According to the book: "It is a fact, which we will not prove here, that any two ordered fields with the least-upper-bound property are isomorphic." Are you referring to this? If so, where can I find an easiest proof? Thanks.
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– 72D
Jan 5 at 8:17
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Yes this is what I’m referring to. A very classical result. M. Google will help you to find a proof somewhere.
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– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 5 at 8:30
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A proof and much more can be found in the book "The real numbers and real analysis" by Ethan Block.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Jan 5 at 10:04
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Since the ordered field with the least upper bound property is unique up to order preserving isomorphisms, Rudin defines $mathbb R$ as $R$ assuming this.
A sketch proof of this result goes as follows: we assume $mathbb R$ has been constructed (using theorem 1.19) and let $R$ be another ordered field with the least upper bound property.
Since $1 in R,$ we get $n = 1 + 1 + dots + 1 in R$ also. This gives a map $varphi : mathbb N rightarrow R.$ Since $varphi(n) < varphi(m)$ whenever $n < m,$ this map is an injection.
Since $-1 in R$ defined by $1 + (-1) = 0,$ and $(-1) times n = -n in R$ for any $n in mathbb N,$ this map $varphi$ extends to a map $mathbb Z rightarrow mathbb R.$ Again using the ordered field property, this remains an injection.
If $p/q in mathbb Q$ with $p,q in mathbb Z$ and $q neq 0,$ we get $varphi$ extends to a map $mathbb Q rightarrow R$ by sending $varphi(p/q) = varphi(p)/varphi(q).$ Note that this map is an injection by construction. Note $varphi(p/q) = 0$ if and only if $varphi(p)=0,$ so the map remains an injection. Also $varphi$ can be checked to be a order-preserving homomorphism of fields, so $varphi(a)<varphi(b)$ if $a<b,$ $varphi(ab) = varphi(a)varphi(b),$ $varphi(a+b) = varphi(a)+varphi(b)$ and $varphi(c^{-1}) = varphi(c)^{-1}$ whenever $c neq 0.$
Up until now what we did was completely algebraic, and showed any such field contains a copy of $mathbb Q$ by the above construction. We now want to extend this to all of $mathbb R$ and show the extension is bijective.
If $x in mathbb R,$ recall that using Rudin's definition via Dedekind cuts, $x$ satisfies,
$$ x = {a in mathbb Q : a < x }. $$
Then we define $overline{varphi} : mathbb R rightarrow R$ by sending,
$$ overline{varphi}(x) = sup{ varphi(a) : a in mathbb Q, a < x }. $$
Note this makes sense because $R$ has the least upper bound property, so we can take suprema (and by the archimedian property of $mathbb R,$ this is bounded above by $varphi(n)$ with $n > x$ an integer).To show $overline{varphi}$ is injective, it is useful to show that for any $A subset mathbb Q$ bounded above we have,
$$ sup varphi(A) = overline{varphi}(sup A). $$
Using this, it shouldn't be too hard to show that $overline{varphi}$ is also an order preserving field homomorphism $mathbb R rightarrow R$ which agrees with $varphi$ when restricted to $mathbb Q.$Finally to show surjectivity, let $y in R.$ By the Archimedian property, the set,
$$ A = {a in varphi(mathbb Q) : a < y } $$
is bounded from above, so $sup A = z in R$ exists. Then $z leq y,$ and we wish to show they are equal. If not, by the archimedian property (applied to $1/(y-z)$) there is $n in mathbb N$ such that $z + varphi(n)^{-1} < y.$ But this implies that,
$$ A = { a + varphi(n)^{-1} : a in varphi(mathbb Q), a < y }. $$
But then $a + varphi(n)^{-1} < y$ whenever $a in varphi(mathbb Q)$ such that $a< y,$ so iteratively applying this gives $a + varphi(m)varphi(n)^{-1} < y$ for all $a in A$ and $m in mathbb N.$ But this contradicts the archimedian property of $R$, which asserts that there is $N in mathbb N$ such that $y < N.$
Hence $y = z,$ so if we let,
$$ B = {b in mathbb Q : varphi(b) < y}, $$
we get $overline{varphi}(sup B) = y.$ So $overlinevarphi$ is an isomorphism.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Defining a Dedekind cut as $x = {a in mathbb Q : a < x }$ is really not good... It assumes that you already have the reals before defining those. Where is that $x$ coming from?
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 5 at 10:22
$begingroup$
@mathcounterexamples.net I worded it incorrectly (indeed it is not by definition), but I am assuming the reals have already been constructed. In that case x does satisfy the claimed property, which is what I want to use. I'll clarify things in an edit.
$endgroup$
– ktoi
Jan 5 at 13:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since the ordered field with the least upper bound property is unique up to order preserving isomorphisms, Rudin defines $mathbb R$ as $R$ assuming this.
A sketch proof of this result goes as follows: we assume $mathbb R$ has been constructed (using theorem 1.19) and let $R$ be another ordered field with the least upper bound property.
Since $1 in R,$ we get $n = 1 + 1 + dots + 1 in R$ also. This gives a map $varphi : mathbb N rightarrow R.$ Since $varphi(n) < varphi(m)$ whenever $n < m,$ this map is an injection.
Since $-1 in R$ defined by $1 + (-1) = 0,$ and $(-1) times n = -n in R$ for any $n in mathbb N,$ this map $varphi$ extends to a map $mathbb Z rightarrow mathbb R.$ Again using the ordered field property, this remains an injection.
If $p/q in mathbb Q$ with $p,q in mathbb Z$ and $q neq 0,$ we get $varphi$ extends to a map $mathbb Q rightarrow R$ by sending $varphi(p/q) = varphi(p)/varphi(q).$ Note that this map is an injection by construction. Note $varphi(p/q) = 0$ if and only if $varphi(p)=0,$ so the map remains an injection. Also $varphi$ can be checked to be a order-preserving homomorphism of fields, so $varphi(a)<varphi(b)$ if $a<b,$ $varphi(ab) = varphi(a)varphi(b),$ $varphi(a+b) = varphi(a)+varphi(b)$ and $varphi(c^{-1}) = varphi(c)^{-1}$ whenever $c neq 0.$
Up until now what we did was completely algebraic, and showed any such field contains a copy of $mathbb Q$ by the above construction. We now want to extend this to all of $mathbb R$ and show the extension is bijective.
If $x in mathbb R,$ recall that using Rudin's definition via Dedekind cuts, $x$ satisfies,
$$ x = {a in mathbb Q : a < x }. $$
Then we define $overline{varphi} : mathbb R rightarrow R$ by sending,
$$ overline{varphi}(x) = sup{ varphi(a) : a in mathbb Q, a < x }. $$
Note this makes sense because $R$ has the least upper bound property, so we can take suprema (and by the archimedian property of $mathbb R,$ this is bounded above by $varphi(n)$ with $n > x$ an integer).To show $overline{varphi}$ is injective, it is useful to show that for any $A subset mathbb Q$ bounded above we have,
$$ sup varphi(A) = overline{varphi}(sup A). $$
Using this, it shouldn't be too hard to show that $overline{varphi}$ is also an order preserving field homomorphism $mathbb R rightarrow R$ which agrees with $varphi$ when restricted to $mathbb Q.$Finally to show surjectivity, let $y in R.$ By the Archimedian property, the set,
$$ A = {a in varphi(mathbb Q) : a < y } $$
is bounded from above, so $sup A = z in R$ exists. Then $z leq y,$ and we wish to show they are equal. If not, by the archimedian property (applied to $1/(y-z)$) there is $n in mathbb N$ such that $z + varphi(n)^{-1} < y.$ But this implies that,
$$ A = { a + varphi(n)^{-1} : a in varphi(mathbb Q), a < y }. $$
But then $a + varphi(n)^{-1} < y$ whenever $a in varphi(mathbb Q)$ such that $a< y,$ so iteratively applying this gives $a + varphi(m)varphi(n)^{-1} < y$ for all $a in A$ and $m in mathbb N.$ But this contradicts the archimedian property of $R$, which asserts that there is $N in mathbb N$ such that $y < N.$
Hence $y = z,$ so if we let,
$$ B = {b in mathbb Q : varphi(b) < y}, $$
we get $overline{varphi}(sup B) = y.$ So $overlinevarphi$ is an isomorphism.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Defining a Dedekind cut as $x = {a in mathbb Q : a < x }$ is really not good... It assumes that you already have the reals before defining those. Where is that $x$ coming from?
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 5 at 10:22
$begingroup$
@mathcounterexamples.net I worded it incorrectly (indeed it is not by definition), but I am assuming the reals have already been constructed. In that case x does satisfy the claimed property, which is what I want to use. I'll clarify things in an edit.
$endgroup$
– ktoi
Jan 5 at 13:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since the ordered field with the least upper bound property is unique up to order preserving isomorphisms, Rudin defines $mathbb R$ as $R$ assuming this.
A sketch proof of this result goes as follows: we assume $mathbb R$ has been constructed (using theorem 1.19) and let $R$ be another ordered field with the least upper bound property.
Since $1 in R,$ we get $n = 1 + 1 + dots + 1 in R$ also. This gives a map $varphi : mathbb N rightarrow R.$ Since $varphi(n) < varphi(m)$ whenever $n < m,$ this map is an injection.
Since $-1 in R$ defined by $1 + (-1) = 0,$ and $(-1) times n = -n in R$ for any $n in mathbb N,$ this map $varphi$ extends to a map $mathbb Z rightarrow mathbb R.$ Again using the ordered field property, this remains an injection.
If $p/q in mathbb Q$ with $p,q in mathbb Z$ and $q neq 0,$ we get $varphi$ extends to a map $mathbb Q rightarrow R$ by sending $varphi(p/q) = varphi(p)/varphi(q).$ Note that this map is an injection by construction. Note $varphi(p/q) = 0$ if and only if $varphi(p)=0,$ so the map remains an injection. Also $varphi$ can be checked to be a order-preserving homomorphism of fields, so $varphi(a)<varphi(b)$ if $a<b,$ $varphi(ab) = varphi(a)varphi(b),$ $varphi(a+b) = varphi(a)+varphi(b)$ and $varphi(c^{-1}) = varphi(c)^{-1}$ whenever $c neq 0.$
Up until now what we did was completely algebraic, and showed any such field contains a copy of $mathbb Q$ by the above construction. We now want to extend this to all of $mathbb R$ and show the extension is bijective.
If $x in mathbb R,$ recall that using Rudin's definition via Dedekind cuts, $x$ satisfies,
$$ x = {a in mathbb Q : a < x }. $$
Then we define $overline{varphi} : mathbb R rightarrow R$ by sending,
$$ overline{varphi}(x) = sup{ varphi(a) : a in mathbb Q, a < x }. $$
Note this makes sense because $R$ has the least upper bound property, so we can take suprema (and by the archimedian property of $mathbb R,$ this is bounded above by $varphi(n)$ with $n > x$ an integer).To show $overline{varphi}$ is injective, it is useful to show that for any $A subset mathbb Q$ bounded above we have,
$$ sup varphi(A) = overline{varphi}(sup A). $$
Using this, it shouldn't be too hard to show that $overline{varphi}$ is also an order preserving field homomorphism $mathbb R rightarrow R$ which agrees with $varphi$ when restricted to $mathbb Q.$Finally to show surjectivity, let $y in R.$ By the Archimedian property, the set,
$$ A = {a in varphi(mathbb Q) : a < y } $$
is bounded from above, so $sup A = z in R$ exists. Then $z leq y,$ and we wish to show they are equal. If not, by the archimedian property (applied to $1/(y-z)$) there is $n in mathbb N$ such that $z + varphi(n)^{-1} < y.$ But this implies that,
$$ A = { a + varphi(n)^{-1} : a in varphi(mathbb Q), a < y }. $$
But then $a + varphi(n)^{-1} < y$ whenever $a in varphi(mathbb Q)$ such that $a< y,$ so iteratively applying this gives $a + varphi(m)varphi(n)^{-1} < y$ for all $a in A$ and $m in mathbb N.$ But this contradicts the archimedian property of $R$, which asserts that there is $N in mathbb N$ such that $y < N.$
Hence $y = z,$ so if we let,
$$ B = {b in mathbb Q : varphi(b) < y}, $$
we get $overline{varphi}(sup B) = y.$ So $overlinevarphi$ is an isomorphism.
$endgroup$
Since the ordered field with the least upper bound property is unique up to order preserving isomorphisms, Rudin defines $mathbb R$ as $R$ assuming this.
A sketch proof of this result goes as follows: we assume $mathbb R$ has been constructed (using theorem 1.19) and let $R$ be another ordered field with the least upper bound property.
Since $1 in R,$ we get $n = 1 + 1 + dots + 1 in R$ also. This gives a map $varphi : mathbb N rightarrow R.$ Since $varphi(n) < varphi(m)$ whenever $n < m,$ this map is an injection.
Since $-1 in R$ defined by $1 + (-1) = 0,$ and $(-1) times n = -n in R$ for any $n in mathbb N,$ this map $varphi$ extends to a map $mathbb Z rightarrow mathbb R.$ Again using the ordered field property, this remains an injection.
If $p/q in mathbb Q$ with $p,q in mathbb Z$ and $q neq 0,$ we get $varphi$ extends to a map $mathbb Q rightarrow R$ by sending $varphi(p/q) = varphi(p)/varphi(q).$ Note that this map is an injection by construction. Note $varphi(p/q) = 0$ if and only if $varphi(p)=0,$ so the map remains an injection. Also $varphi$ can be checked to be a order-preserving homomorphism of fields, so $varphi(a)<varphi(b)$ if $a<b,$ $varphi(ab) = varphi(a)varphi(b),$ $varphi(a+b) = varphi(a)+varphi(b)$ and $varphi(c^{-1}) = varphi(c)^{-1}$ whenever $c neq 0.$
Up until now what we did was completely algebraic, and showed any such field contains a copy of $mathbb Q$ by the above construction. We now want to extend this to all of $mathbb R$ and show the extension is bijective.
If $x in mathbb R,$ recall that using Rudin's definition via Dedekind cuts, $x$ satisfies,
$$ x = {a in mathbb Q : a < x }. $$
Then we define $overline{varphi} : mathbb R rightarrow R$ by sending,
$$ overline{varphi}(x) = sup{ varphi(a) : a in mathbb Q, a < x }. $$
Note this makes sense because $R$ has the least upper bound property, so we can take suprema (and by the archimedian property of $mathbb R,$ this is bounded above by $varphi(n)$ with $n > x$ an integer).To show $overline{varphi}$ is injective, it is useful to show that for any $A subset mathbb Q$ bounded above we have,
$$ sup varphi(A) = overline{varphi}(sup A). $$
Using this, it shouldn't be too hard to show that $overline{varphi}$ is also an order preserving field homomorphism $mathbb R rightarrow R$ which agrees with $varphi$ when restricted to $mathbb Q.$Finally to show surjectivity, let $y in R.$ By the Archimedian property, the set,
$$ A = {a in varphi(mathbb Q) : a < y } $$
is bounded from above, so $sup A = z in R$ exists. Then $z leq y,$ and we wish to show they are equal. If not, by the archimedian property (applied to $1/(y-z)$) there is $n in mathbb N$ such that $z + varphi(n)^{-1} < y.$ But this implies that,
$$ A = { a + varphi(n)^{-1} : a in varphi(mathbb Q), a < y }. $$
But then $a + varphi(n)^{-1} < y$ whenever $a in varphi(mathbb Q)$ such that $a< y,$ so iteratively applying this gives $a + varphi(m)varphi(n)^{-1} < y$ for all $a in A$ and $m in mathbb N.$ But this contradicts the archimedian property of $R$, which asserts that there is $N in mathbb N$ such that $y < N.$
Hence $y = z,$ so if we let,
$$ B = {b in mathbb Q : varphi(b) < y}, $$
we get $overline{varphi}(sup B) = y.$ So $overlinevarphi$ is an isomorphism.
edited Jan 5 at 13:26
answered Jan 5 at 9:33
ktoiktoi
2,4161618
2,4161618
$begingroup$
Defining a Dedekind cut as $x = {a in mathbb Q : a < x }$ is really not good... It assumes that you already have the reals before defining those. Where is that $x$ coming from?
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 5 at 10:22
$begingroup$
@mathcounterexamples.net I worded it incorrectly (indeed it is not by definition), but I am assuming the reals have already been constructed. In that case x does satisfy the claimed property, which is what I want to use. I'll clarify things in an edit.
$endgroup$
– ktoi
Jan 5 at 13:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Defining a Dedekind cut as $x = {a in mathbb Q : a < x }$ is really not good... It assumes that you already have the reals before defining those. Where is that $x$ coming from?
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 5 at 10:22
$begingroup$
@mathcounterexamples.net I worded it incorrectly (indeed it is not by definition), but I am assuming the reals have already been constructed. In that case x does satisfy the claimed property, which is what I want to use. I'll clarify things in an edit.
$endgroup$
– ktoi
Jan 5 at 13:24
$begingroup$
Defining a Dedekind cut as $x = {a in mathbb Q : a < x }$ is really not good... It assumes that you already have the reals before defining those. Where is that $x$ coming from?
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 5 at 10:22
$begingroup$
Defining a Dedekind cut as $x = {a in mathbb Q : a < x }$ is really not good... It assumes that you already have the reals before defining those. Where is that $x$ coming from?
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 5 at 10:22
$begingroup$
@mathcounterexamples.net I worded it incorrectly (indeed it is not by definition), but I am assuming the reals have already been constructed. In that case x does satisfy the claimed property, which is what I want to use. I'll clarify things in an edit.
$endgroup$
– ktoi
Jan 5 at 13:24
$begingroup$
@mathcounterexamples.net I worded it incorrectly (indeed it is not by definition), but I am assuming the reals have already been constructed. In that case x does satisfy the claimed property, which is what I want to use. I'll clarify things in an edit.
$endgroup$
– ktoi
Jan 5 at 13:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I don’t have Rudin book at hand.
However an important theorem that he probably uses is that an ordered Archimedean field having the upper bound property is unique up to isomorphism.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
According to the book: "It is a fact, which we will not prove here, that any two ordered fields with the least-upper-bound property are isomorphic." Are you referring to this? If so, where can I find an easiest proof? Thanks.
$endgroup$
– 72D
Jan 5 at 8:17
$begingroup$
Yes this is what I’m referring to. A very classical result. M. Google will help you to find a proof somewhere.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 5 at 8:30
$begingroup$
A proof and much more can be found in the book "The real numbers and real analysis" by Ethan Block.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Jan 5 at 10:04
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I don’t have Rudin book at hand.
However an important theorem that he probably uses is that an ordered Archimedean field having the upper bound property is unique up to isomorphism.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
According to the book: "It is a fact, which we will not prove here, that any two ordered fields with the least-upper-bound property are isomorphic." Are you referring to this? If so, where can I find an easiest proof? Thanks.
$endgroup$
– 72D
Jan 5 at 8:17
$begingroup$
Yes this is what I’m referring to. A very classical result. M. Google will help you to find a proof somewhere.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 5 at 8:30
$begingroup$
A proof and much more can be found in the book "The real numbers and real analysis" by Ethan Block.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Jan 5 at 10:04
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I don’t have Rudin book at hand.
However an important theorem that he probably uses is that an ordered Archimedean field having the upper bound property is unique up to isomorphism.
$endgroup$
I don’t have Rudin book at hand.
However an important theorem that he probably uses is that an ordered Archimedean field having the upper bound property is unique up to isomorphism.
answered Jan 5 at 8:07
mathcounterexamples.netmathcounterexamples.net
27k22158
27k22158
$begingroup$
According to the book: "It is a fact, which we will not prove here, that any two ordered fields with the least-upper-bound property are isomorphic." Are you referring to this? If so, where can I find an easiest proof? Thanks.
$endgroup$
– 72D
Jan 5 at 8:17
$begingroup$
Yes this is what I’m referring to. A very classical result. M. Google will help you to find a proof somewhere.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 5 at 8:30
$begingroup$
A proof and much more can be found in the book "The real numbers and real analysis" by Ethan Block.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Jan 5 at 10:04
add a comment |
$begingroup$
According to the book: "It is a fact, which we will not prove here, that any two ordered fields with the least-upper-bound property are isomorphic." Are you referring to this? If so, where can I find an easiest proof? Thanks.
$endgroup$
– 72D
Jan 5 at 8:17
$begingroup$
Yes this is what I’m referring to. A very classical result. M. Google will help you to find a proof somewhere.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 5 at 8:30
$begingroup$
A proof and much more can be found in the book "The real numbers and real analysis" by Ethan Block.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Jan 5 at 10:04
$begingroup$
According to the book: "It is a fact, which we will not prove here, that any two ordered fields with the least-upper-bound property are isomorphic." Are you referring to this? If so, where can I find an easiest proof? Thanks.
$endgroup$
– 72D
Jan 5 at 8:17
$begingroup$
According to the book: "It is a fact, which we will not prove here, that any two ordered fields with the least-upper-bound property are isomorphic." Are you referring to this? If so, where can I find an easiest proof? Thanks.
$endgroup$
– 72D
Jan 5 at 8:17
$begingroup$
Yes this is what I’m referring to. A very classical result. M. Google will help you to find a proof somewhere.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 5 at 8:30
$begingroup$
Yes this is what I’m referring to. A very classical result. M. Google will help you to find a proof somewhere.
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 5 at 8:30
$begingroup$
A proof and much more can be found in the book "The real numbers and real analysis" by Ethan Block.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Jan 5 at 10:04
$begingroup$
A proof and much more can be found in the book "The real numbers and real analysis" by Ethan Block.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Jan 5 at 10:04
add a comment |
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