Intersection number for projective plane curves












1














Context: In our lecture about algebraic geometry we defined the intersection number of two algebraic curves $F,G$ to be $dim_k (mathcal{O}_P (mathbb{A}^2)/(F,G))$. Then we proved that it satisfies the 7 Properties for intersection numbers (I am not sure if these are well known or not, but I mean the ones from William Fultons book about algebraic curves).

My question is regarding the intersection number of two projective curves $F,G$, which we defined by $dim_k (mathcal{O}_P (mathbb{P}^2)/(F_*,G_*))$, where $F_*$ and $G_*$ are the corresponding dehomogenized forms. Our professor only told us that this satisfies the 7 properties again (however you have to change 2 of them a little so that they make sense in the projective case).
Now I wanted to know if you actually have to check every single one of the properties again, or if there is a short argument tracing back to the affine case.

Thx in advance!










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  • 3




    Since the definition only talks about local rings at a point, one may simply work in the affine open set containing that particular point. Thus we are reduced to the affine case.
    – random123
    Dec 7 at 8:09










  • @random123 I get it now, thank you! So does the uniqueness also follow like in the affine case?
    – user9620780
    Dec 9 at 20:12






  • 1




    I dont see why not. The same argument as above should apply here too. It should follow as long as its local in nature. That is depends only on the local rings.
    – random123
    Dec 10 at 3:32
















1














Context: In our lecture about algebraic geometry we defined the intersection number of two algebraic curves $F,G$ to be $dim_k (mathcal{O}_P (mathbb{A}^2)/(F,G))$. Then we proved that it satisfies the 7 Properties for intersection numbers (I am not sure if these are well known or not, but I mean the ones from William Fultons book about algebraic curves).

My question is regarding the intersection number of two projective curves $F,G$, which we defined by $dim_k (mathcal{O}_P (mathbb{P}^2)/(F_*,G_*))$, where $F_*$ and $G_*$ are the corresponding dehomogenized forms. Our professor only told us that this satisfies the 7 properties again (however you have to change 2 of them a little so that they make sense in the projective case).
Now I wanted to know if you actually have to check every single one of the properties again, or if there is a short argument tracing back to the affine case.

Thx in advance!










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 3




    Since the definition only talks about local rings at a point, one may simply work in the affine open set containing that particular point. Thus we are reduced to the affine case.
    – random123
    Dec 7 at 8:09










  • @random123 I get it now, thank you! So does the uniqueness also follow like in the affine case?
    – user9620780
    Dec 9 at 20:12






  • 1




    I dont see why not. The same argument as above should apply here too. It should follow as long as its local in nature. That is depends only on the local rings.
    – random123
    Dec 10 at 3:32














1












1








1







Context: In our lecture about algebraic geometry we defined the intersection number of two algebraic curves $F,G$ to be $dim_k (mathcal{O}_P (mathbb{A}^2)/(F,G))$. Then we proved that it satisfies the 7 Properties for intersection numbers (I am not sure if these are well known or not, but I mean the ones from William Fultons book about algebraic curves).

My question is regarding the intersection number of two projective curves $F,G$, which we defined by $dim_k (mathcal{O}_P (mathbb{P}^2)/(F_*,G_*))$, where $F_*$ and $G_*$ are the corresponding dehomogenized forms. Our professor only told us that this satisfies the 7 properties again (however you have to change 2 of them a little so that they make sense in the projective case).
Now I wanted to know if you actually have to check every single one of the properties again, or if there is a short argument tracing back to the affine case.

Thx in advance!










share|cite|improve this question













Context: In our lecture about algebraic geometry we defined the intersection number of two algebraic curves $F,G$ to be $dim_k (mathcal{O}_P (mathbb{A}^2)/(F,G))$. Then we proved that it satisfies the 7 Properties for intersection numbers (I am not sure if these are well known or not, but I mean the ones from William Fultons book about algebraic curves).

My question is regarding the intersection number of two projective curves $F,G$, which we defined by $dim_k (mathcal{O}_P (mathbb{P}^2)/(F_*,G_*))$, where $F_*$ and $G_*$ are the corresponding dehomogenized forms. Our professor only told us that this satisfies the 7 properties again (however you have to change 2 of them a little so that they make sense in the projective case).
Now I wanted to know if you actually have to check every single one of the properties again, or if there is a short argument tracing back to the affine case.

Thx in advance!







algebraic-geometry projective-space intersection-theory projective-varieties






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share|cite|improve this question











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asked Dec 6 at 17:36









user9620780

876




876








  • 3




    Since the definition only talks about local rings at a point, one may simply work in the affine open set containing that particular point. Thus we are reduced to the affine case.
    – random123
    Dec 7 at 8:09










  • @random123 I get it now, thank you! So does the uniqueness also follow like in the affine case?
    – user9620780
    Dec 9 at 20:12






  • 1




    I dont see why not. The same argument as above should apply here too. It should follow as long as its local in nature. That is depends only on the local rings.
    – random123
    Dec 10 at 3:32














  • 3




    Since the definition only talks about local rings at a point, one may simply work in the affine open set containing that particular point. Thus we are reduced to the affine case.
    – random123
    Dec 7 at 8:09










  • @random123 I get it now, thank you! So does the uniqueness also follow like in the affine case?
    – user9620780
    Dec 9 at 20:12






  • 1




    I dont see why not. The same argument as above should apply here too. It should follow as long as its local in nature. That is depends only on the local rings.
    – random123
    Dec 10 at 3:32








3




3




Since the definition only talks about local rings at a point, one may simply work in the affine open set containing that particular point. Thus we are reduced to the affine case.
– random123
Dec 7 at 8:09




Since the definition only talks about local rings at a point, one may simply work in the affine open set containing that particular point. Thus we are reduced to the affine case.
– random123
Dec 7 at 8:09












@random123 I get it now, thank you! So does the uniqueness also follow like in the affine case?
– user9620780
Dec 9 at 20:12




@random123 I get it now, thank you! So does the uniqueness also follow like in the affine case?
– user9620780
Dec 9 at 20:12




1




1




I dont see why not. The same argument as above should apply here too. It should follow as long as its local in nature. That is depends only on the local rings.
– random123
Dec 10 at 3:32




I dont see why not. The same argument as above should apply here too. It should follow as long as its local in nature. That is depends only on the local rings.
– random123
Dec 10 at 3:32















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