Model formulation: a conclusion about the model before solving it











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I have found this simple model in a paper discussing robust optimization [1]



$$max vec{c}^{T}vec{x}$$



s.t.
$$sum_j a_{ij}x_j + sum_j tilde{a}_{ij}y_j leq b_i ;;;forall i$$



$$ -y_j leq x_jleq y_j ;;;forall j$$



$$vec{l} leq vec{x} leq vec{u} $$



$$vec{y} geq 0$$



$a_{ij}$ and $tilde{a}_{ij}$ are such that they form an interval $[a_{ij}-tilde{a}_{ij}, a_{ij}+tilde{a}_{ij}]$ (but I don't know whether it is relevant to what follows).



Let $vec{x}^{*}$ be the optimal solution. The authors state "At optimality, clearly, $y_j=|x_j^{*}|$". Unfortunately, I am not able to understand this conclusion. Would you please help me understand?



Thanks



[1] Bertsimas, Sim, 2004, The Price of Robustness. Operations Research










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    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    I have found this simple model in a paper discussing robust optimization [1]



    $$max vec{c}^{T}vec{x}$$



    s.t.
    $$sum_j a_{ij}x_j + sum_j tilde{a}_{ij}y_j leq b_i ;;;forall i$$



    $$ -y_j leq x_jleq y_j ;;;forall j$$



    $$vec{l} leq vec{x} leq vec{u} $$



    $$vec{y} geq 0$$



    $a_{ij}$ and $tilde{a}_{ij}$ are such that they form an interval $[a_{ij}-tilde{a}_{ij}, a_{ij}+tilde{a}_{ij}]$ (but I don't know whether it is relevant to what follows).



    Let $vec{x}^{*}$ be the optimal solution. The authors state "At optimality, clearly, $y_j=|x_j^{*}|$". Unfortunately, I am not able to understand this conclusion. Would you please help me understand?



    Thanks



    [1] Bertsimas, Sim, 2004, The Price of Robustness. Operations Research










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      I have found this simple model in a paper discussing robust optimization [1]



      $$max vec{c}^{T}vec{x}$$



      s.t.
      $$sum_j a_{ij}x_j + sum_j tilde{a}_{ij}y_j leq b_i ;;;forall i$$



      $$ -y_j leq x_jleq y_j ;;;forall j$$



      $$vec{l} leq vec{x} leq vec{u} $$



      $$vec{y} geq 0$$



      $a_{ij}$ and $tilde{a}_{ij}$ are such that they form an interval $[a_{ij}-tilde{a}_{ij}, a_{ij}+tilde{a}_{ij}]$ (but I don't know whether it is relevant to what follows).



      Let $vec{x}^{*}$ be the optimal solution. The authors state "At optimality, clearly, $y_j=|x_j^{*}|$". Unfortunately, I am not able to understand this conclusion. Would you please help me understand?



      Thanks



      [1] Bertsimas, Sim, 2004, The Price of Robustness. Operations Research










      share|cite|improve this question













      I have found this simple model in a paper discussing robust optimization [1]



      $$max vec{c}^{T}vec{x}$$



      s.t.
      $$sum_j a_{ij}x_j + sum_j tilde{a}_{ij}y_j leq b_i ;;;forall i$$



      $$ -y_j leq x_jleq y_j ;;;forall j$$



      $$vec{l} leq vec{x} leq vec{u} $$



      $$vec{y} geq 0$$



      $a_{ij}$ and $tilde{a}_{ij}$ are such that they form an interval $[a_{ij}-tilde{a}_{ij}, a_{ij}+tilde{a}_{ij}]$ (but I don't know whether it is relevant to what follows).



      Let $vec{x}^{*}$ be the optimal solution. The authors state "At optimality, clearly, $y_j=|x_j^{*}|$". Unfortunately, I am not able to understand this conclusion. Would you please help me understand?



      Thanks



      [1] Bertsimas, Sim, 2004, The Price of Robustness. Operations Research







      optimization linear-programming mathematical-modeling






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      asked Dec 4 at 15:58









      Libra

      361210




      361210






















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          If the reformulated constraint $sum_j a_{ij}x_j + tilde{a}_{ij}|x_j| leq b_i$ is binding at optimality, a proof is easy (there is simply no other $y_j$ that is feasible). The conclusion is erroneous otherwise (although the solution remains optimal if you let $y_j = |x_j|$).






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • So, if I understand correctly, since it is a maximization problem under a budget constraint, the original constraint (involving $vec{y}$) should be binding at optimality. Further, since the objective involves only the $vec{x}$ I would set $vec{x}$ "as large as possible" and $vec{y}$ to $0$, but this is prevented by the second set of constraints where $vec{y}$ is greater than $vec{x}$. So, the best solution is to set $vec{x} = vec{y}$. Is this a correct reasoning? Still, I miss the absolute value.
            – Libra
            Dec 4 at 17:44












          • @Libra maximization vs minimization is irrelevant (as you can always multiply $c$ with $-1$). If the objective causes the constraints to be binding (which can be with an "as small as possible" (negative) $x$ as well (depending on the sign of $a_{ij}$)), your reasoning is correct.
            – LinAlg
            Dec 4 at 17:53













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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
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          active

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          active

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          active

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          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          If the reformulated constraint $sum_j a_{ij}x_j + tilde{a}_{ij}|x_j| leq b_i$ is binding at optimality, a proof is easy (there is simply no other $y_j$ that is feasible). The conclusion is erroneous otherwise (although the solution remains optimal if you let $y_j = |x_j|$).






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • So, if I understand correctly, since it is a maximization problem under a budget constraint, the original constraint (involving $vec{y}$) should be binding at optimality. Further, since the objective involves only the $vec{x}$ I would set $vec{x}$ "as large as possible" and $vec{y}$ to $0$, but this is prevented by the second set of constraints where $vec{y}$ is greater than $vec{x}$. So, the best solution is to set $vec{x} = vec{y}$. Is this a correct reasoning? Still, I miss the absolute value.
            – Libra
            Dec 4 at 17:44












          • @Libra maximization vs minimization is irrelevant (as you can always multiply $c$ with $-1$). If the objective causes the constraints to be binding (which can be with an "as small as possible" (negative) $x$ as well (depending on the sign of $a_{ij}$)), your reasoning is correct.
            – LinAlg
            Dec 4 at 17:53

















          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          If the reformulated constraint $sum_j a_{ij}x_j + tilde{a}_{ij}|x_j| leq b_i$ is binding at optimality, a proof is easy (there is simply no other $y_j$ that is feasible). The conclusion is erroneous otherwise (although the solution remains optimal if you let $y_j = |x_j|$).






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • So, if I understand correctly, since it is a maximization problem under a budget constraint, the original constraint (involving $vec{y}$) should be binding at optimality. Further, since the objective involves only the $vec{x}$ I would set $vec{x}$ "as large as possible" and $vec{y}$ to $0$, but this is prevented by the second set of constraints where $vec{y}$ is greater than $vec{x}$. So, the best solution is to set $vec{x} = vec{y}$. Is this a correct reasoning? Still, I miss the absolute value.
            – Libra
            Dec 4 at 17:44












          • @Libra maximization vs minimization is irrelevant (as you can always multiply $c$ with $-1$). If the objective causes the constraints to be binding (which can be with an "as small as possible" (negative) $x$ as well (depending on the sign of $a_{ij}$)), your reasoning is correct.
            – LinAlg
            Dec 4 at 17:53















          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted






          If the reformulated constraint $sum_j a_{ij}x_j + tilde{a}_{ij}|x_j| leq b_i$ is binding at optimality, a proof is easy (there is simply no other $y_j$ that is feasible). The conclusion is erroneous otherwise (although the solution remains optimal if you let $y_j = |x_j|$).






          share|cite|improve this answer












          If the reformulated constraint $sum_j a_{ij}x_j + tilde{a}_{ij}|x_j| leq b_i$ is binding at optimality, a proof is easy (there is simply no other $y_j$ that is feasible). The conclusion is erroneous otherwise (although the solution remains optimal if you let $y_j = |x_j|$).







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 4 at 16:14









          LinAlg

          7,9241520




          7,9241520












          • So, if I understand correctly, since it is a maximization problem under a budget constraint, the original constraint (involving $vec{y}$) should be binding at optimality. Further, since the objective involves only the $vec{x}$ I would set $vec{x}$ "as large as possible" and $vec{y}$ to $0$, but this is prevented by the second set of constraints where $vec{y}$ is greater than $vec{x}$. So, the best solution is to set $vec{x} = vec{y}$. Is this a correct reasoning? Still, I miss the absolute value.
            – Libra
            Dec 4 at 17:44












          • @Libra maximization vs minimization is irrelevant (as you can always multiply $c$ with $-1$). If the objective causes the constraints to be binding (which can be with an "as small as possible" (negative) $x$ as well (depending on the sign of $a_{ij}$)), your reasoning is correct.
            – LinAlg
            Dec 4 at 17:53




















          • So, if I understand correctly, since it is a maximization problem under a budget constraint, the original constraint (involving $vec{y}$) should be binding at optimality. Further, since the objective involves only the $vec{x}$ I would set $vec{x}$ "as large as possible" and $vec{y}$ to $0$, but this is prevented by the second set of constraints where $vec{y}$ is greater than $vec{x}$. So, the best solution is to set $vec{x} = vec{y}$. Is this a correct reasoning? Still, I miss the absolute value.
            – Libra
            Dec 4 at 17:44












          • @Libra maximization vs minimization is irrelevant (as you can always multiply $c$ with $-1$). If the objective causes the constraints to be binding (which can be with an "as small as possible" (negative) $x$ as well (depending on the sign of $a_{ij}$)), your reasoning is correct.
            – LinAlg
            Dec 4 at 17:53


















          So, if I understand correctly, since it is a maximization problem under a budget constraint, the original constraint (involving $vec{y}$) should be binding at optimality. Further, since the objective involves only the $vec{x}$ I would set $vec{x}$ "as large as possible" and $vec{y}$ to $0$, but this is prevented by the second set of constraints where $vec{y}$ is greater than $vec{x}$. So, the best solution is to set $vec{x} = vec{y}$. Is this a correct reasoning? Still, I miss the absolute value.
          – Libra
          Dec 4 at 17:44






          So, if I understand correctly, since it is a maximization problem under a budget constraint, the original constraint (involving $vec{y}$) should be binding at optimality. Further, since the objective involves only the $vec{x}$ I would set $vec{x}$ "as large as possible" and $vec{y}$ to $0$, but this is prevented by the second set of constraints where $vec{y}$ is greater than $vec{x}$. So, the best solution is to set $vec{x} = vec{y}$. Is this a correct reasoning? Still, I miss the absolute value.
          – Libra
          Dec 4 at 17:44














          @Libra maximization vs minimization is irrelevant (as you can always multiply $c$ with $-1$). If the objective causes the constraints to be binding (which can be with an "as small as possible" (negative) $x$ as well (depending on the sign of $a_{ij}$)), your reasoning is correct.
          – LinAlg
          Dec 4 at 17:53






          @Libra maximization vs minimization is irrelevant (as you can always multiply $c$ with $-1$). If the objective causes the constraints to be binding (which can be with an "as small as possible" (negative) $x$ as well (depending on the sign of $a_{ij}$)), your reasoning is correct.
          – LinAlg
          Dec 4 at 17:53




















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