Proof that $log_q(p)$ is (mostly) irrational for integers q,p












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Does this proof make sense, especially the last part?



Take $q>p$. We consider the equation $p^aq^b=p^{a'} q^{b'}$. Given that $a,b$ and $a',b'$ are distinct respectively. We solve, realising that $frac{a-a'}{b'-b} = log_p(q)$. Notice that the existence of solutions implies that the latter is rational. Also, in the same way, a solution for the second equation implies a solution for the first. Therefore solutions to



$p^aq^b=p^{a'} q^{b'}$ is equivalent to saying that $log_p(q)$ is rational.



If $p,q$ don't share the same prime factors, it is easy to see that there exist no distinct solutions.



Now consider the case in which they do. The multiplicity of a prime k on both sides is $k_p a + k_q b = k_p a' + k_q b'$ so $$frac{k_q}{k_p} = log_p(q)$$



This must be a constant and it must be the same for any prime factor $k$. Therefore $q = p^r$ where $r$ is a rational number. Or solutions exist $q^b = p^a$ . Can we simplify this condition further?



Alternatively we could assume $log_p(q) = frac{a}{b}$ is injective so $log_p(p^frac{a}{b})=log_p(q)$ so $p^a = q^b$. This leads us to the same condition.



I'm not sure about the clarity or validity of proof 1. Proof 2 seems cleaner but it assumes injectivity. Could someone help me clear this up so it is concise and conceptually clear?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Does this proof make sense, especially the last part?



    Take $q>p$. We consider the equation $p^aq^b=p^{a'} q^{b'}$. Given that $a,b$ and $a',b'$ are distinct respectively. We solve, realising that $frac{a-a'}{b'-b} = log_p(q)$. Notice that the existence of solutions implies that the latter is rational. Also, in the same way, a solution for the second equation implies a solution for the first. Therefore solutions to



    $p^aq^b=p^{a'} q^{b'}$ is equivalent to saying that $log_p(q)$ is rational.



    If $p,q$ don't share the same prime factors, it is easy to see that there exist no distinct solutions.



    Now consider the case in which they do. The multiplicity of a prime k on both sides is $k_p a + k_q b = k_p a' + k_q b'$ so $$frac{k_q}{k_p} = log_p(q)$$



    This must be a constant and it must be the same for any prime factor $k$. Therefore $q = p^r$ where $r$ is a rational number. Or solutions exist $q^b = p^a$ . Can we simplify this condition further?



    Alternatively we could assume $log_p(q) = frac{a}{b}$ is injective so $log_p(p^frac{a}{b})=log_p(q)$ so $p^a = q^b$. This leads us to the same condition.



    I'm not sure about the clarity or validity of proof 1. Proof 2 seems cleaner but it assumes injectivity. Could someone help me clear this up so it is concise and conceptually clear?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Does this proof make sense, especially the last part?



      Take $q>p$. We consider the equation $p^aq^b=p^{a'} q^{b'}$. Given that $a,b$ and $a',b'$ are distinct respectively. We solve, realising that $frac{a-a'}{b'-b} = log_p(q)$. Notice that the existence of solutions implies that the latter is rational. Also, in the same way, a solution for the second equation implies a solution for the first. Therefore solutions to



      $p^aq^b=p^{a'} q^{b'}$ is equivalent to saying that $log_p(q)$ is rational.



      If $p,q$ don't share the same prime factors, it is easy to see that there exist no distinct solutions.



      Now consider the case in which they do. The multiplicity of a prime k on both sides is $k_p a + k_q b = k_p a' + k_q b'$ so $$frac{k_q}{k_p} = log_p(q)$$



      This must be a constant and it must be the same for any prime factor $k$. Therefore $q = p^r$ where $r$ is a rational number. Or solutions exist $q^b = p^a$ . Can we simplify this condition further?



      Alternatively we could assume $log_p(q) = frac{a}{b}$ is injective so $log_p(p^frac{a}{b})=log_p(q)$ so $p^a = q^b$. This leads us to the same condition.



      I'm not sure about the clarity or validity of proof 1. Proof 2 seems cleaner but it assumes injectivity. Could someone help me clear this up so it is concise and conceptually clear?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Does this proof make sense, especially the last part?



      Take $q>p$. We consider the equation $p^aq^b=p^{a'} q^{b'}$. Given that $a,b$ and $a',b'$ are distinct respectively. We solve, realising that $frac{a-a'}{b'-b} = log_p(q)$. Notice that the existence of solutions implies that the latter is rational. Also, in the same way, a solution for the second equation implies a solution for the first. Therefore solutions to



      $p^aq^b=p^{a'} q^{b'}$ is equivalent to saying that $log_p(q)$ is rational.



      If $p,q$ don't share the same prime factors, it is easy to see that there exist no distinct solutions.



      Now consider the case in which they do. The multiplicity of a prime k on both sides is $k_p a + k_q b = k_p a' + k_q b'$ so $$frac{k_q}{k_p} = log_p(q)$$



      This must be a constant and it must be the same for any prime factor $k$. Therefore $q = p^r$ where $r$ is a rational number. Or solutions exist $q^b = p^a$ . Can we simplify this condition further?



      Alternatively we could assume $log_p(q) = frac{a}{b}$ is injective so $log_p(p^frac{a}{b})=log_p(q)$ so $p^a = q^b$. This leads us to the same condition.



      I'm not sure about the clarity or validity of proof 1. Proof 2 seems cleaner but it assumes injectivity. Could someone help me clear this up so it is concise and conceptually clear?







      proof-verification proof-writing logarithms irrational-numbers






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      edited Dec 30 '18 at 9:43







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      asked Dec 30 '18 at 9:37









      Dis-integratingDis-integrating

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