Surjective function at a subset of its codomain












0












$begingroup$


In Wikipedia we read:




In mathematics, a function $f$ from a set $X$ to a set $Y$ is surjective (or onto), or a surjection, if for every element $y$ in the codomain $Y$ of $f$ there is at least one element $x$ in the domain $X$ of $f$ such that $f(x) = y$.




Can a function $f:Ato B$ be called surjective at a specific subset of its codomain?



I ask if this definition exists:




A function $f$ from a set $X$ to a set $Y$ is surjective at a subset $A$ of its codomain if for every element $y$ in the set $A$ there is at least one element $x$ in the domain $X$ of $f$ such that $f(x) = y$.




For example the function $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$
such that $f(x)=x^2$ is not surjective (at its codomain $mathbb{R}$).
But is it called surjective at $mathbb{R}_+$ for example?(or each subset of $mathbb{R}_+$)



By that definition every function is surjective at all subsets of its image.










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "By that definition every function is surjective at all subsets of its image." Not quite: only at its image. It's not a well-defined function for any smaller subset.
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 11 at 20:16






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    We just say that $A$ is a subset of the image of $f$. I never heard about this definition.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Jan 11 at 20:21










  • $begingroup$
    No, absolutely unusual: A function is surjective at its image or a subset of it.
    $endgroup$
    – Wuestenfux
    Jan 11 at 20:26
















0












$begingroup$


In Wikipedia we read:




In mathematics, a function $f$ from a set $X$ to a set $Y$ is surjective (or onto), or a surjection, if for every element $y$ in the codomain $Y$ of $f$ there is at least one element $x$ in the domain $X$ of $f$ such that $f(x) = y$.




Can a function $f:Ato B$ be called surjective at a specific subset of its codomain?



I ask if this definition exists:




A function $f$ from a set $X$ to a set $Y$ is surjective at a subset $A$ of its codomain if for every element $y$ in the set $A$ there is at least one element $x$ in the domain $X$ of $f$ such that $f(x) = y$.




For example the function $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$
such that $f(x)=x^2$ is not surjective (at its codomain $mathbb{R}$).
But is it called surjective at $mathbb{R}_+$ for example?(or each subset of $mathbb{R}_+$)



By that definition every function is surjective at all subsets of its image.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "By that definition every function is surjective at all subsets of its image." Not quite: only at its image. It's not a well-defined function for any smaller subset.
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 11 at 20:16






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    We just say that $A$ is a subset of the image of $f$. I never heard about this definition.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Jan 11 at 20:21










  • $begingroup$
    No, absolutely unusual: A function is surjective at its image or a subset of it.
    $endgroup$
    – Wuestenfux
    Jan 11 at 20:26














0












0








0





$begingroup$


In Wikipedia we read:




In mathematics, a function $f$ from a set $X$ to a set $Y$ is surjective (or onto), or a surjection, if for every element $y$ in the codomain $Y$ of $f$ there is at least one element $x$ in the domain $X$ of $f$ such that $f(x) = y$.




Can a function $f:Ato B$ be called surjective at a specific subset of its codomain?



I ask if this definition exists:




A function $f$ from a set $X$ to a set $Y$ is surjective at a subset $A$ of its codomain if for every element $y$ in the set $A$ there is at least one element $x$ in the domain $X$ of $f$ such that $f(x) = y$.




For example the function $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$
such that $f(x)=x^2$ is not surjective (at its codomain $mathbb{R}$).
But is it called surjective at $mathbb{R}_+$ for example?(or each subset of $mathbb{R}_+$)



By that definition every function is surjective at all subsets of its image.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




In Wikipedia we read:




In mathematics, a function $f$ from a set $X$ to a set $Y$ is surjective (or onto), or a surjection, if for every element $y$ in the codomain $Y$ of $f$ there is at least one element $x$ in the domain $X$ of $f$ such that $f(x) = y$.




Can a function $f:Ato B$ be called surjective at a specific subset of its codomain?



I ask if this definition exists:




A function $f$ from a set $X$ to a set $Y$ is surjective at a subset $A$ of its codomain if for every element $y$ in the set $A$ there is at least one element $x$ in the domain $X$ of $f$ such that $f(x) = y$.




For example the function $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$
such that $f(x)=x^2$ is not surjective (at its codomain $mathbb{R}$).
But is it called surjective at $mathbb{R}_+$ for example?(or each subset of $mathbb{R}_+$)



By that definition every function is surjective at all subsets of its image.







functions






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jan 11 at 20:11









JohnJohn

514




514








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "By that definition every function is surjective at all subsets of its image." Not quite: only at its image. It's not a well-defined function for any smaller subset.
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 11 at 20:16






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    We just say that $A$ is a subset of the image of $f$. I never heard about this definition.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Jan 11 at 20:21










  • $begingroup$
    No, absolutely unusual: A function is surjective at its image or a subset of it.
    $endgroup$
    – Wuestenfux
    Jan 11 at 20:26














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "By that definition every function is surjective at all subsets of its image." Not quite: only at its image. It's not a well-defined function for any smaller subset.
    $endgroup$
    – user3482749
    Jan 11 at 20:16






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    We just say that $A$ is a subset of the image of $f$. I never heard about this definition.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Jan 11 at 20:21










  • $begingroup$
    No, absolutely unusual: A function is surjective at its image or a subset of it.
    $endgroup$
    – Wuestenfux
    Jan 11 at 20:26








1




1




$begingroup$
"By that definition every function is surjective at all subsets of its image." Not quite: only at its image. It's not a well-defined function for any smaller subset.
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 11 at 20:16




$begingroup$
"By that definition every function is surjective at all subsets of its image." Not quite: only at its image. It's not a well-defined function for any smaller subset.
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 11 at 20:16




1




1




$begingroup$
We just say that $A$ is a subset of the image of $f$. I never heard about this definition.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 11 at 20:21




$begingroup$
We just say that $A$ is a subset of the image of $f$. I never heard about this definition.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Jan 11 at 20:21












$begingroup$
No, absolutely unusual: A function is surjective at its image or a subset of it.
$endgroup$
– Wuestenfux
Jan 11 at 20:26




$begingroup$
No, absolutely unusual: A function is surjective at its image or a subset of it.
$endgroup$
– Wuestenfux
Jan 11 at 20:26










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