Two different solutions of $intfrac{1}{1+x} dx$












0












$begingroup$


I am having doubt in the calculation of the integral
$$
intfrac{1}{1+x} dx,$$



the solution of which is
$$
log(1+x)+C.$$



I have solved this integration in a different way. First I converted the above integral to
$$
;intfrac{1}{1+(sqrt{x})^2} dx.$$


Then I used the formula as
$$
{intfrac{1}{1+x^2} dx}=tan^{-1}x+C
$$

so by using this formula I got as an answer $tan^{-1}(sqrt{x})+C$ which is different from the solution.



Am I correct about this?










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Differentiating $tan^{-1}sqrt x$ gives $frac1{2sqrt x(1+x)}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:48










  • $begingroup$
    The correct answer is $ln(|1+x|)+C$.
    $endgroup$
    – hamam_Abdallah
    Dec 26 '18 at 20:02
















0












$begingroup$


I am having doubt in the calculation of the integral
$$
intfrac{1}{1+x} dx,$$



the solution of which is
$$
log(1+x)+C.$$



I have solved this integration in a different way. First I converted the above integral to
$$
;intfrac{1}{1+(sqrt{x})^2} dx.$$


Then I used the formula as
$$
{intfrac{1}{1+x^2} dx}=tan^{-1}x+C
$$

so by using this formula I got as an answer $tan^{-1}(sqrt{x})+C$ which is different from the solution.



Am I correct about this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Differentiating $tan^{-1}sqrt x$ gives $frac1{2sqrt x(1+x)}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:48










  • $begingroup$
    The correct answer is $ln(|1+x|)+C$.
    $endgroup$
    – hamam_Abdallah
    Dec 26 '18 at 20:02














0












0








0


1



$begingroup$


I am having doubt in the calculation of the integral
$$
intfrac{1}{1+x} dx,$$



the solution of which is
$$
log(1+x)+C.$$



I have solved this integration in a different way. First I converted the above integral to
$$
;intfrac{1}{1+(sqrt{x})^2} dx.$$


Then I used the formula as
$$
{intfrac{1}{1+x^2} dx}=tan^{-1}x+C
$$

so by using this formula I got as an answer $tan^{-1}(sqrt{x})+C$ which is different from the solution.



Am I correct about this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I am having doubt in the calculation of the integral
$$
intfrac{1}{1+x} dx,$$



the solution of which is
$$
log(1+x)+C.$$



I have solved this integration in a different way. First I converted the above integral to
$$
;intfrac{1}{1+(sqrt{x})^2} dx.$$


Then I used the formula as
$$
{intfrac{1}{1+x^2} dx}=tan^{-1}x+C
$$

so by using this formula I got as an answer $tan^{-1}(sqrt{x})+C$ which is different from the solution.



Am I correct about this?







calculus integration






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Dec 28 '18 at 3:36









user587192

1




1










asked Dec 26 '18 at 18:47









sanketsanket

32




32








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Differentiating $tan^{-1}sqrt x$ gives $frac1{2sqrt x(1+x)}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:48










  • $begingroup$
    The correct answer is $ln(|1+x|)+C$.
    $endgroup$
    – hamam_Abdallah
    Dec 26 '18 at 20:02














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Differentiating $tan^{-1}sqrt x$ gives $frac1{2sqrt x(1+x)}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:48










  • $begingroup$
    The correct answer is $ln(|1+x|)+C$.
    $endgroup$
    – hamam_Abdallah
    Dec 26 '18 at 20:02








1




1




$begingroup$
Differentiating $tan^{-1}sqrt x$ gives $frac1{2sqrt x(1+x)}$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 26 '18 at 18:48




$begingroup$
Differentiating $tan^{-1}sqrt x$ gives $frac1{2sqrt x(1+x)}$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 26 '18 at 18:48












$begingroup$
The correct answer is $ln(|1+x|)+C$.
$endgroup$
– hamam_Abdallah
Dec 26 '18 at 20:02




$begingroup$
The correct answer is $ln(|1+x|)+C$.
$endgroup$
– hamam_Abdallah
Dec 26 '18 at 20:02










2 Answers
2






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1












$begingroup$

The substitution $x=t^2$ (which, by the way, can be done only for $xge0$) brings the integral in the form
$$
intfrac{1}{1+t^2}cdot 2t,dt=log(1+t^2)+c=log(1+x)+c
$$



Recall that integration by substitution is an application of the chain rule for derivatives. The $dx$ is a reminder for you to apply it (more than that, actually).



Otherwise you'd get, similarly to your manipulation,
$$
int x,dx=int (sqrt{x})^2,dx=frac{(sqrt{x})^3}{3}+c
$$

which is clearly absurd. Or
$$
intfrac{1}{sqrt{1-x}},dx=intfrac{1}{sqrt{1-(sqrt{x})^2}},dx=arcsinsqrt{x}+c
$$

whereas the correct antiderivative is $-2sqrt{1-x}+c$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    11












    $begingroup$

    No. You forgot to change $rm{d}x$ into $rm{d}(sqrt x)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1












      $begingroup$

      The substitution $x=t^2$ (which, by the way, can be done only for $xge0$) brings the integral in the form
      $$
      intfrac{1}{1+t^2}cdot 2t,dt=log(1+t^2)+c=log(1+x)+c
      $$



      Recall that integration by substitution is an application of the chain rule for derivatives. The $dx$ is a reminder for you to apply it (more than that, actually).



      Otherwise you'd get, similarly to your manipulation,
      $$
      int x,dx=int (sqrt{x})^2,dx=frac{(sqrt{x})^3}{3}+c
      $$

      which is clearly absurd. Or
      $$
      intfrac{1}{sqrt{1-x}},dx=intfrac{1}{sqrt{1-(sqrt{x})^2}},dx=arcsinsqrt{x}+c
      $$

      whereas the correct antiderivative is $-2sqrt{1-x}+c$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        The substitution $x=t^2$ (which, by the way, can be done only for $xge0$) brings the integral in the form
        $$
        intfrac{1}{1+t^2}cdot 2t,dt=log(1+t^2)+c=log(1+x)+c
        $$



        Recall that integration by substitution is an application of the chain rule for derivatives. The $dx$ is a reminder for you to apply it (more than that, actually).



        Otherwise you'd get, similarly to your manipulation,
        $$
        int x,dx=int (sqrt{x})^2,dx=frac{(sqrt{x})^3}{3}+c
        $$

        which is clearly absurd. Or
        $$
        intfrac{1}{sqrt{1-x}},dx=intfrac{1}{sqrt{1-(sqrt{x})^2}},dx=arcsinsqrt{x}+c
        $$

        whereas the correct antiderivative is $-2sqrt{1-x}+c$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          The substitution $x=t^2$ (which, by the way, can be done only for $xge0$) brings the integral in the form
          $$
          intfrac{1}{1+t^2}cdot 2t,dt=log(1+t^2)+c=log(1+x)+c
          $$



          Recall that integration by substitution is an application of the chain rule for derivatives. The $dx$ is a reminder for you to apply it (more than that, actually).



          Otherwise you'd get, similarly to your manipulation,
          $$
          int x,dx=int (sqrt{x})^2,dx=frac{(sqrt{x})^3}{3}+c
          $$

          which is clearly absurd. Or
          $$
          intfrac{1}{sqrt{1-x}},dx=intfrac{1}{sqrt{1-(sqrt{x})^2}},dx=arcsinsqrt{x}+c
          $$

          whereas the correct antiderivative is $-2sqrt{1-x}+c$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          The substitution $x=t^2$ (which, by the way, can be done only for $xge0$) brings the integral in the form
          $$
          intfrac{1}{1+t^2}cdot 2t,dt=log(1+t^2)+c=log(1+x)+c
          $$



          Recall that integration by substitution is an application of the chain rule for derivatives. The $dx$ is a reminder for you to apply it (more than that, actually).



          Otherwise you'd get, similarly to your manipulation,
          $$
          int x,dx=int (sqrt{x})^2,dx=frac{(sqrt{x})^3}{3}+c
          $$

          which is clearly absurd. Or
          $$
          intfrac{1}{sqrt{1-x}},dx=intfrac{1}{sqrt{1-(sqrt{x})^2}},dx=arcsinsqrt{x}+c
          $$

          whereas the correct antiderivative is $-2sqrt{1-x}+c$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 26 '18 at 19:16









          egregegreg

          182k1485203




          182k1485203























              11












              $begingroup$

              No. You forgot to change $rm{d}x$ into $rm{d}(sqrt x)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                11












                $begingroup$

                No. You forgot to change $rm{d}x$ into $rm{d}(sqrt x)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  11












                  11








                  11





                  $begingroup$

                  No. You forgot to change $rm{d}x$ into $rm{d}(sqrt x)$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  No. You forgot to change $rm{d}x$ into $rm{d}(sqrt x)$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 26 '18 at 18:49









                  Lucas HenriqueLucas Henrique

                  1,059414




                  1,059414






























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