Explaining the proof of Fibonacci number using inductive reasoning
Fibonacci numbers are defined as follows.
$$F_{1}= F_{2} = 1$$
When $n geq 3$, $$F_{n} = F_{n-1} + F_{n-2}$$
Task: Prove the following statement using mathematical induction:
- When $n geq 2$, $$F_{n-1}F_{n+1} = F_{n}^2 + (-1)^n$$
The Base Case:
The Inductive Step:
I'm really confused about the inductive step. The answer makes absolutely no sense to me.
Questions:
- For the inductive step, why is the yellow area equal to the green area?
- For the inductive step, how do we arrive at the purple and red statement?
I think the answer given to me is too simplified and doesn't demonstrate a clear logical reasoning.
induction fibonacci-numbers
add a comment |
Fibonacci numbers are defined as follows.
$$F_{1}= F_{2} = 1$$
When $n geq 3$, $$F_{n} = F_{n-1} + F_{n-2}$$
Task: Prove the following statement using mathematical induction:
- When $n geq 2$, $$F_{n-1}F_{n+1} = F_{n}^2 + (-1)^n$$
The Base Case:
The Inductive Step:
I'm really confused about the inductive step. The answer makes absolutely no sense to me.
Questions:
- For the inductive step, why is the yellow area equal to the green area?
- For the inductive step, how do we arrive at the purple and red statement?
I think the answer given to me is too simplified and doesn't demonstrate a clear logical reasoning.
induction fibonacci-numbers
My apologies for anyone who is color blind. It's just easier for me to color code the statements.
– potatoguy
Dec 9 '18 at 22:18
add a comment |
Fibonacci numbers are defined as follows.
$$F_{1}= F_{2} = 1$$
When $n geq 3$, $$F_{n} = F_{n-1} + F_{n-2}$$
Task: Prove the following statement using mathematical induction:
- When $n geq 2$, $$F_{n-1}F_{n+1} = F_{n}^2 + (-1)^n$$
The Base Case:
The Inductive Step:
I'm really confused about the inductive step. The answer makes absolutely no sense to me.
Questions:
- For the inductive step, why is the yellow area equal to the green area?
- For the inductive step, how do we arrive at the purple and red statement?
I think the answer given to me is too simplified and doesn't demonstrate a clear logical reasoning.
induction fibonacci-numbers
Fibonacci numbers are defined as follows.
$$F_{1}= F_{2} = 1$$
When $n geq 3$, $$F_{n} = F_{n-1} + F_{n-2}$$
Task: Prove the following statement using mathematical induction:
- When $n geq 2$, $$F_{n-1}F_{n+1} = F_{n}^2 + (-1)^n$$
The Base Case:
The Inductive Step:
I'm really confused about the inductive step. The answer makes absolutely no sense to me.
Questions:
- For the inductive step, why is the yellow area equal to the green area?
- For the inductive step, how do we arrive at the purple and red statement?
I think the answer given to me is too simplified and doesn't demonstrate a clear logical reasoning.
induction fibonacci-numbers
induction fibonacci-numbers
edited Dec 10 '18 at 11:44
amWhy
191k28224439
191k28224439
asked Dec 9 '18 at 22:15
potatoguy
525
525
My apologies for anyone who is color blind. It's just easier for me to color code the statements.
– potatoguy
Dec 9 '18 at 22:18
add a comment |
My apologies for anyone who is color blind. It's just easier for me to color code the statements.
– potatoguy
Dec 9 '18 at 22:18
My apologies for anyone who is color blind. It's just easier for me to color code the statements.
– potatoguy
Dec 9 '18 at 22:18
My apologies for anyone who is color blind. It's just easier for me to color code the statements.
– potatoguy
Dec 9 '18 at 22:18
add a comment |
2 Answers
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The green part is
$$f^2(k)+f(k)f(k+1)=(f(k-1)+f(k))f(k+1)-(-1)^k=f^2(k+1)+(-1)^{k+1},$$
i.e. the yellow part. Note that it's not supposed to be obvious at this stage that green = yellow; that they are is what the subsequent lines show. The important part is that red - yellow; that's why the inductive step works. The way the proof of this actually starts is by rewriting $f(k+2)$ as a sum to get the green expression.The purple part is equal to the line above it, by summing the coefficients of $f(k+1)$ and taking care with powers of $-1$. The red part rewrites the summed coefficient from the recursion relation, and then notes a square is present.
add a comment |
- Because, by definition, $f(k+2)=f(k+1)+f(k)$.
- First of all, $-(-1)^k=(-1)times(-1)^k=(-1)^{k+1}$. Then,$$f(k)f(k+1)+f(k-1)f(k+1)=bigl(f(k)+f(k-1)bigr)f(k+1).$$So,$$f(k)f(k+1)+f(k-1)f(k+1)-(-1)^k=bigl(f(k)+f(k-1)bigr)f(k+1)+(-1)^{k+1}.tag1$$But, by definition, $f(k+1)=f(k)+f(k-1)$. So, $(1)$ becomes$$f(k)f(k+1)+f(k-1)f(k+1)-(-1)^k=bigl(f(k+1)bigr)^2+(-1)^{k+1}.$$
1. asked about the green expression, not the blue one.
– J.G.
Dec 9 '18 at 22:25
I've edited my answer. I hope that everything is clear now.
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 9 '18 at 22:29
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
The green part is
$$f^2(k)+f(k)f(k+1)=(f(k-1)+f(k))f(k+1)-(-1)^k=f^2(k+1)+(-1)^{k+1},$$
i.e. the yellow part. Note that it's not supposed to be obvious at this stage that green = yellow; that they are is what the subsequent lines show. The important part is that red - yellow; that's why the inductive step works. The way the proof of this actually starts is by rewriting $f(k+2)$ as a sum to get the green expression.The purple part is equal to the line above it, by summing the coefficients of $f(k+1)$ and taking care with powers of $-1$. The red part rewrites the summed coefficient from the recursion relation, and then notes a square is present.
add a comment |
The green part is
$$f^2(k)+f(k)f(k+1)=(f(k-1)+f(k))f(k+1)-(-1)^k=f^2(k+1)+(-1)^{k+1},$$
i.e. the yellow part. Note that it's not supposed to be obvious at this stage that green = yellow; that they are is what the subsequent lines show. The important part is that red - yellow; that's why the inductive step works. The way the proof of this actually starts is by rewriting $f(k+2)$ as a sum to get the green expression.The purple part is equal to the line above it, by summing the coefficients of $f(k+1)$ and taking care with powers of $-1$. The red part rewrites the summed coefficient from the recursion relation, and then notes a square is present.
add a comment |
The green part is
$$f^2(k)+f(k)f(k+1)=(f(k-1)+f(k))f(k+1)-(-1)^k=f^2(k+1)+(-1)^{k+1},$$
i.e. the yellow part. Note that it's not supposed to be obvious at this stage that green = yellow; that they are is what the subsequent lines show. The important part is that red - yellow; that's why the inductive step works. The way the proof of this actually starts is by rewriting $f(k+2)$ as a sum to get the green expression.The purple part is equal to the line above it, by summing the coefficients of $f(k+1)$ and taking care with powers of $-1$. The red part rewrites the summed coefficient from the recursion relation, and then notes a square is present.
The green part is
$$f^2(k)+f(k)f(k+1)=(f(k-1)+f(k))f(k+1)-(-1)^k=f^2(k+1)+(-1)^{k+1},$$
i.e. the yellow part. Note that it's not supposed to be obvious at this stage that green = yellow; that they are is what the subsequent lines show. The important part is that red - yellow; that's why the inductive step works. The way the proof of this actually starts is by rewriting $f(k+2)$ as a sum to get the green expression.The purple part is equal to the line above it, by summing the coefficients of $f(k+1)$ and taking care with powers of $-1$. The red part rewrites the summed coefficient from the recursion relation, and then notes a square is present.
answered Dec 9 '18 at 22:25
J.G.
22.6k22136
22.6k22136
add a comment |
add a comment |
- Because, by definition, $f(k+2)=f(k+1)+f(k)$.
- First of all, $-(-1)^k=(-1)times(-1)^k=(-1)^{k+1}$. Then,$$f(k)f(k+1)+f(k-1)f(k+1)=bigl(f(k)+f(k-1)bigr)f(k+1).$$So,$$f(k)f(k+1)+f(k-1)f(k+1)-(-1)^k=bigl(f(k)+f(k-1)bigr)f(k+1)+(-1)^{k+1}.tag1$$But, by definition, $f(k+1)=f(k)+f(k-1)$. So, $(1)$ becomes$$f(k)f(k+1)+f(k-1)f(k+1)-(-1)^k=bigl(f(k+1)bigr)^2+(-1)^{k+1}.$$
1. asked about the green expression, not the blue one.
– J.G.
Dec 9 '18 at 22:25
I've edited my answer. I hope that everything is clear now.
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 9 '18 at 22:29
add a comment |
- Because, by definition, $f(k+2)=f(k+1)+f(k)$.
- First of all, $-(-1)^k=(-1)times(-1)^k=(-1)^{k+1}$. Then,$$f(k)f(k+1)+f(k-1)f(k+1)=bigl(f(k)+f(k-1)bigr)f(k+1).$$So,$$f(k)f(k+1)+f(k-1)f(k+1)-(-1)^k=bigl(f(k)+f(k-1)bigr)f(k+1)+(-1)^{k+1}.tag1$$But, by definition, $f(k+1)=f(k)+f(k-1)$. So, $(1)$ becomes$$f(k)f(k+1)+f(k-1)f(k+1)-(-1)^k=bigl(f(k+1)bigr)^2+(-1)^{k+1}.$$
1. asked about the green expression, not the blue one.
– J.G.
Dec 9 '18 at 22:25
I've edited my answer. I hope that everything is clear now.
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 9 '18 at 22:29
add a comment |
- Because, by definition, $f(k+2)=f(k+1)+f(k)$.
- First of all, $-(-1)^k=(-1)times(-1)^k=(-1)^{k+1}$. Then,$$f(k)f(k+1)+f(k-1)f(k+1)=bigl(f(k)+f(k-1)bigr)f(k+1).$$So,$$f(k)f(k+1)+f(k-1)f(k+1)-(-1)^k=bigl(f(k)+f(k-1)bigr)f(k+1)+(-1)^{k+1}.tag1$$But, by definition, $f(k+1)=f(k)+f(k-1)$. So, $(1)$ becomes$$f(k)f(k+1)+f(k-1)f(k+1)-(-1)^k=bigl(f(k+1)bigr)^2+(-1)^{k+1}.$$
- Because, by definition, $f(k+2)=f(k+1)+f(k)$.
- First of all, $-(-1)^k=(-1)times(-1)^k=(-1)^{k+1}$. Then,$$f(k)f(k+1)+f(k-1)f(k+1)=bigl(f(k)+f(k-1)bigr)f(k+1).$$So,$$f(k)f(k+1)+f(k-1)f(k+1)-(-1)^k=bigl(f(k)+f(k-1)bigr)f(k+1)+(-1)^{k+1}.tag1$$But, by definition, $f(k+1)=f(k)+f(k-1)$. So, $(1)$ becomes$$f(k)f(k+1)+f(k-1)f(k+1)-(-1)^k=bigl(f(k+1)bigr)^2+(-1)^{k+1}.$$
edited Dec 9 '18 at 22:29
answered Dec 9 '18 at 22:23
José Carlos Santos
150k22121221
150k22121221
1. asked about the green expression, not the blue one.
– J.G.
Dec 9 '18 at 22:25
I've edited my answer. I hope that everything is clear now.
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 9 '18 at 22:29
add a comment |
1. asked about the green expression, not the blue one.
– J.G.
Dec 9 '18 at 22:25
I've edited my answer. I hope that everything is clear now.
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 9 '18 at 22:29
1. asked about the green expression, not the blue one.
– J.G.
Dec 9 '18 at 22:25
1. asked about the green expression, not the blue one.
– J.G.
Dec 9 '18 at 22:25
I've edited my answer. I hope that everything is clear now.
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 9 '18 at 22:29
I've edited my answer. I hope that everything is clear now.
– José Carlos Santos
Dec 9 '18 at 22:29
add a comment |
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My apologies for anyone who is color blind. It's just easier for me to color code the statements.
– potatoguy
Dec 9 '18 at 22:18