Find a sequence ${a_n}$ such that both $sum {a_n}$ and $sum{frac{1}{n^2 a_n}}$ converge.
$begingroup$
Find a sequence ${a_n}$ such that both $sum_1^infty {a_n}$ and
$sum_1^infty {frac{1}{n^2 a_n}}$ converge. If no such sequence
exists, prove that.
Actually the question was for $sum_1^infty {n{a_n}}$ and $sum_1^infty {frac{1}{n^2 a_n}}$. For this problem; If we suppose that both are convergent, then their multiply $sum_1^infty 1/n$ must be convergent and this is a contradiction.
But for $sum_1^infty {a_n}$ and $sum_1^infty {frac{1}{n^2 a_n}}$, if we multiply we get $sum_1^infty 1/n^2$ which is convergent. I tried to find a sequence such that both the series converge but I couldn't find any but also I couldn't prove that there is no such sequence exists.
Edit. $a_n >0$
sequences-and-series convergence
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Find a sequence ${a_n}$ such that both $sum_1^infty {a_n}$ and
$sum_1^infty {frac{1}{n^2 a_n}}$ converge. If no such sequence
exists, prove that.
Actually the question was for $sum_1^infty {n{a_n}}$ and $sum_1^infty {frac{1}{n^2 a_n}}$. For this problem; If we suppose that both are convergent, then their multiply $sum_1^infty 1/n$ must be convergent and this is a contradiction.
But for $sum_1^infty {a_n}$ and $sum_1^infty {frac{1}{n^2 a_n}}$, if we multiply we get $sum_1^infty 1/n^2$ which is convergent. I tried to find a sequence such that both the series converge but I couldn't find any but also I couldn't prove that there is no such sequence exists.
Edit. $a_n >0$
sequences-and-series convergence
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I think that $a_n>0$ should be a condition to make the question really interesting
$endgroup$
– ajotatxe
Jan 7 at 21:08
$begingroup$
@ajotatxe yes. The book I found the first question, said at the first of the series chapter, that for all questions, consider $a_n>0$ and I forgot to mention that.
$endgroup$
– amir na
Jan 7 at 21:23
$begingroup$
With the condition $a_n > 0$ it is a duplicate of math.stackexchange.com/q/1933001/42969.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Jan 7 at 21:31
$begingroup$
If $a_n>0$, by Cauchy-Schwarz $$sum_{n=1}^{N}a_nsum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n^2 a_n}geq H_N^2geq log^2(N).$$
$endgroup$
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 7 at 21:34
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Find a sequence ${a_n}$ such that both $sum_1^infty {a_n}$ and
$sum_1^infty {frac{1}{n^2 a_n}}$ converge. If no such sequence
exists, prove that.
Actually the question was for $sum_1^infty {n{a_n}}$ and $sum_1^infty {frac{1}{n^2 a_n}}$. For this problem; If we suppose that both are convergent, then their multiply $sum_1^infty 1/n$ must be convergent and this is a contradiction.
But for $sum_1^infty {a_n}$ and $sum_1^infty {frac{1}{n^2 a_n}}$, if we multiply we get $sum_1^infty 1/n^2$ which is convergent. I tried to find a sequence such that both the series converge but I couldn't find any but also I couldn't prove that there is no such sequence exists.
Edit. $a_n >0$
sequences-and-series convergence
$endgroup$
Find a sequence ${a_n}$ such that both $sum_1^infty {a_n}$ and
$sum_1^infty {frac{1}{n^2 a_n}}$ converge. If no such sequence
exists, prove that.
Actually the question was for $sum_1^infty {n{a_n}}$ and $sum_1^infty {frac{1}{n^2 a_n}}$. For this problem; If we suppose that both are convergent, then their multiply $sum_1^infty 1/n$ must be convergent and this is a contradiction.
But for $sum_1^infty {a_n}$ and $sum_1^infty {frac{1}{n^2 a_n}}$, if we multiply we get $sum_1^infty 1/n^2$ which is convergent. I tried to find a sequence such that both the series converge but I couldn't find any but also I couldn't prove that there is no such sequence exists.
Edit. $a_n >0$
sequences-and-series convergence
sequences-and-series convergence
edited Jan 7 at 21:23
amir na
asked Jan 7 at 21:01
amir naamir na
1486
1486
$begingroup$
I think that $a_n>0$ should be a condition to make the question really interesting
$endgroup$
– ajotatxe
Jan 7 at 21:08
$begingroup$
@ajotatxe yes. The book I found the first question, said at the first of the series chapter, that for all questions, consider $a_n>0$ and I forgot to mention that.
$endgroup$
– amir na
Jan 7 at 21:23
$begingroup$
With the condition $a_n > 0$ it is a duplicate of math.stackexchange.com/q/1933001/42969.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Jan 7 at 21:31
$begingroup$
If $a_n>0$, by Cauchy-Schwarz $$sum_{n=1}^{N}a_nsum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n^2 a_n}geq H_N^2geq log^2(N).$$
$endgroup$
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 7 at 21:34
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think that $a_n>0$ should be a condition to make the question really interesting
$endgroup$
– ajotatxe
Jan 7 at 21:08
$begingroup$
@ajotatxe yes. The book I found the first question, said at the first of the series chapter, that for all questions, consider $a_n>0$ and I forgot to mention that.
$endgroup$
– amir na
Jan 7 at 21:23
$begingroup$
With the condition $a_n > 0$ it is a duplicate of math.stackexchange.com/q/1933001/42969.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Jan 7 at 21:31
$begingroup$
If $a_n>0$, by Cauchy-Schwarz $$sum_{n=1}^{N}a_nsum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n^2 a_n}geq H_N^2geq log^2(N).$$
$endgroup$
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 7 at 21:34
$begingroup$
I think that $a_n>0$ should be a condition to make the question really interesting
$endgroup$
– ajotatxe
Jan 7 at 21:08
$begingroup$
I think that $a_n>0$ should be a condition to make the question really interesting
$endgroup$
– ajotatxe
Jan 7 at 21:08
$begingroup$
@ajotatxe yes. The book I found the first question, said at the first of the series chapter, that for all questions, consider $a_n>0$ and I forgot to mention that.
$endgroup$
– amir na
Jan 7 at 21:23
$begingroup$
@ajotatxe yes. The book I found the first question, said at the first of the series chapter, that for all questions, consider $a_n>0$ and I forgot to mention that.
$endgroup$
– amir na
Jan 7 at 21:23
$begingroup$
With the condition $a_n > 0$ it is a duplicate of math.stackexchange.com/q/1933001/42969.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Jan 7 at 21:31
$begingroup$
With the condition $a_n > 0$ it is a duplicate of math.stackexchange.com/q/1933001/42969.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Jan 7 at 21:31
$begingroup$
If $a_n>0$, by Cauchy-Schwarz $$sum_{n=1}^{N}a_nsum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n^2 a_n}geq H_N^2geq log^2(N).$$
$endgroup$
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 7 at 21:34
$begingroup$
If $a_n>0$, by Cauchy-Schwarz $$sum_{n=1}^{N}a_nsum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n^2 a_n}geq H_N^2geq log^2(N).$$
$endgroup$
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 7 at 21:34
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
The answer is yes, an example is
$$a_n = frac{(-1)^n}{n}$$
However, there is no such a sequence with positive terms.
Indeed, if you suppsose that both $sum a_n$ and $sumfrac{1}{n^2a_n}$ are convergent and with positive terms, then you have by the AM-GM inequality
$$sum frac{1}{n}=sum sqrt{a_n cdot frac{1}{n^2a_n}} le sum frac{1}{2} left(a_n + frac{1}{n^2a_n} right) < +infty$$
which implies that the harmonic series is convergent: a contradiction.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Perhaps a bit too trivial?
$a_n=(-1)^n(1/n)$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The above answer shows that if the $a_n$s are allowed to change sign, then the sum may converge. However, if the $a_n$s are all positive, then by the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality,
begin{align*}
sum_{n=1}^kfrac{1}{n}&=sum_{n= 1}^kfrac{sqrt{a_n}}{sqrt{n^2a_n}}\
&leq left(sum_{n =1}^ka_nright)^{1/2}left(sum_{n= 1}^kfrac{1}{n^2a_n}right)^{1/2}
end{align*}
Since $sum_{n=1}^kfrac{1}{n}toinfty$ as $ktoinfty$, one of $sum a_n$ and $sum frac{1}{n^2a_n}$ must diverge.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
Your Answer
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
The answer is yes, an example is
$$a_n = frac{(-1)^n}{n}$$
However, there is no such a sequence with positive terms.
Indeed, if you suppsose that both $sum a_n$ and $sumfrac{1}{n^2a_n}$ are convergent and with positive terms, then you have by the AM-GM inequality
$$sum frac{1}{n}=sum sqrt{a_n cdot frac{1}{n^2a_n}} le sum frac{1}{2} left(a_n + frac{1}{n^2a_n} right) < +infty$$
which implies that the harmonic series is convergent: a contradiction.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The answer is yes, an example is
$$a_n = frac{(-1)^n}{n}$$
However, there is no such a sequence with positive terms.
Indeed, if you suppsose that both $sum a_n$ and $sumfrac{1}{n^2a_n}$ are convergent and with positive terms, then you have by the AM-GM inequality
$$sum frac{1}{n}=sum sqrt{a_n cdot frac{1}{n^2a_n}} le sum frac{1}{2} left(a_n + frac{1}{n^2a_n} right) < +infty$$
which implies that the harmonic series is convergent: a contradiction.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The answer is yes, an example is
$$a_n = frac{(-1)^n}{n}$$
However, there is no such a sequence with positive terms.
Indeed, if you suppsose that both $sum a_n$ and $sumfrac{1}{n^2a_n}$ are convergent and with positive terms, then you have by the AM-GM inequality
$$sum frac{1}{n}=sum sqrt{a_n cdot frac{1}{n^2a_n}} le sum frac{1}{2} left(a_n + frac{1}{n^2a_n} right) < +infty$$
which implies that the harmonic series is convergent: a contradiction.
$endgroup$
The answer is yes, an example is
$$a_n = frac{(-1)^n}{n}$$
However, there is no such a sequence with positive terms.
Indeed, if you suppsose that both $sum a_n$ and $sumfrac{1}{n^2a_n}$ are convergent and with positive terms, then you have by the AM-GM inequality
$$sum frac{1}{n}=sum sqrt{a_n cdot frac{1}{n^2a_n}} le sum frac{1}{2} left(a_n + frac{1}{n^2a_n} right) < +infty$$
which implies that the harmonic series is convergent: a contradiction.
answered Jan 7 at 21:15
CrostulCrostul
28.2k22352
28.2k22352
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Perhaps a bit too trivial?
$a_n=(-1)^n(1/n)$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Perhaps a bit too trivial?
$a_n=(-1)^n(1/n)$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Perhaps a bit too trivial?
$a_n=(-1)^n(1/n)$
$endgroup$
Perhaps a bit too trivial?
$a_n=(-1)^n(1/n)$
answered Jan 7 at 21:06
Peter SzilasPeter Szilas
11.7k2822
11.7k2822
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The above answer shows that if the $a_n$s are allowed to change sign, then the sum may converge. However, if the $a_n$s are all positive, then by the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality,
begin{align*}
sum_{n=1}^kfrac{1}{n}&=sum_{n= 1}^kfrac{sqrt{a_n}}{sqrt{n^2a_n}}\
&leq left(sum_{n =1}^ka_nright)^{1/2}left(sum_{n= 1}^kfrac{1}{n^2a_n}right)^{1/2}
end{align*}
Since $sum_{n=1}^kfrac{1}{n}toinfty$ as $ktoinfty$, one of $sum a_n$ and $sum frac{1}{n^2a_n}$ must diverge.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The above answer shows that if the $a_n$s are allowed to change sign, then the sum may converge. However, if the $a_n$s are all positive, then by the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality,
begin{align*}
sum_{n=1}^kfrac{1}{n}&=sum_{n= 1}^kfrac{sqrt{a_n}}{sqrt{n^2a_n}}\
&leq left(sum_{n =1}^ka_nright)^{1/2}left(sum_{n= 1}^kfrac{1}{n^2a_n}right)^{1/2}
end{align*}
Since $sum_{n=1}^kfrac{1}{n}toinfty$ as $ktoinfty$, one of $sum a_n$ and $sum frac{1}{n^2a_n}$ must diverge.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The above answer shows that if the $a_n$s are allowed to change sign, then the sum may converge. However, if the $a_n$s are all positive, then by the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality,
begin{align*}
sum_{n=1}^kfrac{1}{n}&=sum_{n= 1}^kfrac{sqrt{a_n}}{sqrt{n^2a_n}}\
&leq left(sum_{n =1}^ka_nright)^{1/2}left(sum_{n= 1}^kfrac{1}{n^2a_n}right)^{1/2}
end{align*}
Since $sum_{n=1}^kfrac{1}{n}toinfty$ as $ktoinfty$, one of $sum a_n$ and $sum frac{1}{n^2a_n}$ must diverge.
$endgroup$
The above answer shows that if the $a_n$s are allowed to change sign, then the sum may converge. However, if the $a_n$s are all positive, then by the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality,
begin{align*}
sum_{n=1}^kfrac{1}{n}&=sum_{n= 1}^kfrac{sqrt{a_n}}{sqrt{n^2a_n}}\
&leq left(sum_{n =1}^ka_nright)^{1/2}left(sum_{n= 1}^kfrac{1}{n^2a_n}right)^{1/2}
end{align*}
Since $sum_{n=1}^kfrac{1}{n}toinfty$ as $ktoinfty$, one of $sum a_n$ and $sum frac{1}{n^2a_n}$ must diverge.
answered Jan 7 at 21:15
Nathaniel BNathaniel B
851616
851616
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
I think that $a_n>0$ should be a condition to make the question really interesting
$endgroup$
– ajotatxe
Jan 7 at 21:08
$begingroup$
@ajotatxe yes. The book I found the first question, said at the first of the series chapter, that for all questions, consider $a_n>0$ and I forgot to mention that.
$endgroup$
– amir na
Jan 7 at 21:23
$begingroup$
With the condition $a_n > 0$ it is a duplicate of math.stackexchange.com/q/1933001/42969.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Jan 7 at 21:31
$begingroup$
If $a_n>0$, by Cauchy-Schwarz $$sum_{n=1}^{N}a_nsum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n^2 a_n}geq H_N^2geq log^2(N).$$
$endgroup$
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 7 at 21:34