Continuity of a solution of the equation $f(x) - overline{f} = 0$.












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$begingroup$


Consider a positive semi-definite function $f(x) in mathcal{L}^2left( mathbb{R} right)$ of class $textbf{C}^0$. I am interested in knowing the values of $x$ beyond which this function is uniformly below some value $overline{f}$.



$$ overline{x} triangleq min left{ x , Big vert , fleft( rright) leq overline{f}, ,, forall r > x right} $$



We will call $overline{x}$ to be the cut-off point of $f(x)$, and we will assume that $overline{x}$ exists.



Let $overline{x}_alpha$ represent the cut-off point of the function $alpha f(x)$, where $alpha$ is a positive real number, then I would like to prove that
$$ lim_{alpha to 1} overline{x}_alpha =overline{x} $$



Here too, we will assume that $overline{x}_alpha$ exists.



My tentative approach for the proof



In the case of an affine function $f(s) = mx + c$, then for any given $alpha$, we can find an exact value of $overline{x}_alpha$, which is
$$ overline{x}_alpha = left(frac{1-alpha}{alpha}right)frac{overline{f}}{m}$$



In the affine case, $lim_{alpha to 1} overline{x}_alpha = overline{x}$.



For other functions, we can find an approximate value for $overline{x}_alpha$ using an affine approximation the function $alpha f(x)$
$$ hat{overline{x}}_alpha = left(frac{1 - alpha}{alpha}right) frac{overline{f}}{f'(overline{x})} $$



In case $f'(x)$ does not exist, then we could replace it by $f'(overline{x}^-)$ or $f'(overline{x}^+)$ depending on whether $alpha < 1$ or $alpha > 1$.



Depending on the value of $alpha$ and the natuee of $f(x)$, we know that $hat{overline{x}}_alpha approx overline{x}$.



However, we know that $lim_{alpha to 1} hat{overline{x}}_alpha = overline{x}$. Does this also mean that $lim_{alpha to 1} overline{x}_alpha = overline(x)$? If so, how can we demonstrate this?



I think one way to do this could be to show that $alpha to 1$, implies that $hat{overline{x}}_alpha to overline{x}_alpha$. This would in turn imply that $overline{x}_alpha to overline{x}$.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Consider a positive semi-definite function $f(x) in mathcal{L}^2left( mathbb{R} right)$ of class $textbf{C}^0$. I am interested in knowing the values of $x$ beyond which this function is uniformly below some value $overline{f}$.



    $$ overline{x} triangleq min left{ x , Big vert , fleft( rright) leq overline{f}, ,, forall r > x right} $$



    We will call $overline{x}$ to be the cut-off point of $f(x)$, and we will assume that $overline{x}$ exists.



    Let $overline{x}_alpha$ represent the cut-off point of the function $alpha f(x)$, where $alpha$ is a positive real number, then I would like to prove that
    $$ lim_{alpha to 1} overline{x}_alpha =overline{x} $$



    Here too, we will assume that $overline{x}_alpha$ exists.



    My tentative approach for the proof



    In the case of an affine function $f(s) = mx + c$, then for any given $alpha$, we can find an exact value of $overline{x}_alpha$, which is
    $$ overline{x}_alpha = left(frac{1-alpha}{alpha}right)frac{overline{f}}{m}$$



    In the affine case, $lim_{alpha to 1} overline{x}_alpha = overline{x}$.



    For other functions, we can find an approximate value for $overline{x}_alpha$ using an affine approximation the function $alpha f(x)$
    $$ hat{overline{x}}_alpha = left(frac{1 - alpha}{alpha}right) frac{overline{f}}{f'(overline{x})} $$



    In case $f'(x)$ does not exist, then we could replace it by $f'(overline{x}^-)$ or $f'(overline{x}^+)$ depending on whether $alpha < 1$ or $alpha > 1$.



    Depending on the value of $alpha$ and the natuee of $f(x)$, we know that $hat{overline{x}}_alpha approx overline{x}$.



    However, we know that $lim_{alpha to 1} hat{overline{x}}_alpha = overline{x}$. Does this also mean that $lim_{alpha to 1} overline{x}_alpha = overline(x)$? If so, how can we demonstrate this?



    I think one way to do this could be to show that $alpha to 1$, implies that $hat{overline{x}}_alpha to overline{x}_alpha$. This would in turn imply that $overline{x}_alpha to overline{x}$.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Consider a positive semi-definite function $f(x) in mathcal{L}^2left( mathbb{R} right)$ of class $textbf{C}^0$. I am interested in knowing the values of $x$ beyond which this function is uniformly below some value $overline{f}$.



      $$ overline{x} triangleq min left{ x , Big vert , fleft( rright) leq overline{f}, ,, forall r > x right} $$



      We will call $overline{x}$ to be the cut-off point of $f(x)$, and we will assume that $overline{x}$ exists.



      Let $overline{x}_alpha$ represent the cut-off point of the function $alpha f(x)$, where $alpha$ is a positive real number, then I would like to prove that
      $$ lim_{alpha to 1} overline{x}_alpha =overline{x} $$



      Here too, we will assume that $overline{x}_alpha$ exists.



      My tentative approach for the proof



      In the case of an affine function $f(s) = mx + c$, then for any given $alpha$, we can find an exact value of $overline{x}_alpha$, which is
      $$ overline{x}_alpha = left(frac{1-alpha}{alpha}right)frac{overline{f}}{m}$$



      In the affine case, $lim_{alpha to 1} overline{x}_alpha = overline{x}$.



      For other functions, we can find an approximate value for $overline{x}_alpha$ using an affine approximation the function $alpha f(x)$
      $$ hat{overline{x}}_alpha = left(frac{1 - alpha}{alpha}right) frac{overline{f}}{f'(overline{x})} $$



      In case $f'(x)$ does not exist, then we could replace it by $f'(overline{x}^-)$ or $f'(overline{x}^+)$ depending on whether $alpha < 1$ or $alpha > 1$.



      Depending on the value of $alpha$ and the natuee of $f(x)$, we know that $hat{overline{x}}_alpha approx overline{x}$.



      However, we know that $lim_{alpha to 1} hat{overline{x}}_alpha = overline{x}$. Does this also mean that $lim_{alpha to 1} overline{x}_alpha = overline(x)$? If so, how can we demonstrate this?



      I think one way to do this could be to show that $alpha to 1$, implies that $hat{overline{x}}_alpha to overline{x}_alpha$. This would in turn imply that $overline{x}_alpha to overline{x}$.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Consider a positive semi-definite function $f(x) in mathcal{L}^2left( mathbb{R} right)$ of class $textbf{C}^0$. I am interested in knowing the values of $x$ beyond which this function is uniformly below some value $overline{f}$.



      $$ overline{x} triangleq min left{ x , Big vert , fleft( rright) leq overline{f}, ,, forall r > x right} $$



      We will call $overline{x}$ to be the cut-off point of $f(x)$, and we will assume that $overline{x}$ exists.



      Let $overline{x}_alpha$ represent the cut-off point of the function $alpha f(x)$, where $alpha$ is a positive real number, then I would like to prove that
      $$ lim_{alpha to 1} overline{x}_alpha =overline{x} $$



      Here too, we will assume that $overline{x}_alpha$ exists.



      My tentative approach for the proof



      In the case of an affine function $f(s) = mx + c$, then for any given $alpha$, we can find an exact value of $overline{x}_alpha$, which is
      $$ overline{x}_alpha = left(frac{1-alpha}{alpha}right)frac{overline{f}}{m}$$



      In the affine case, $lim_{alpha to 1} overline{x}_alpha = overline{x}$.



      For other functions, we can find an approximate value for $overline{x}_alpha$ using an affine approximation the function $alpha f(x)$
      $$ hat{overline{x}}_alpha = left(frac{1 - alpha}{alpha}right) frac{overline{f}}{f'(overline{x})} $$



      In case $f'(x)$ does not exist, then we could replace it by $f'(overline{x}^-)$ or $f'(overline{x}^+)$ depending on whether $alpha < 1$ or $alpha > 1$.



      Depending on the value of $alpha$ and the natuee of $f(x)$, we know that $hat{overline{x}}_alpha approx overline{x}$.



      However, we know that $lim_{alpha to 1} hat{overline{x}}_alpha = overline{x}$. Does this also mean that $lim_{alpha to 1} overline{x}_alpha = overline(x)$? If so, how can we demonstrate this?



      I think one way to do this could be to show that $alpha to 1$, implies that $hat{overline{x}}_alpha to overline{x}_alpha$. This would in turn imply that $overline{x}_alpha to overline{x}$.







      real-analysis limits continuity






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      asked Jan 12 at 7:19









      siva82kbsiva82kb

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