Player II has a winning strategy in the *-game, G*(A), iff A is countable












3












$begingroup$


I have a question concerning the proof of this theorem in Kechris' "Classical Descriptive Set Theory."
The rules of the game i as follows:
Let $X$ be a nonempty perfect Polish space with compatible complete metric $d$. Fix a basis ${V_n}$ of nonempty open sets for $X$. Given $Asubseteq X$, consider the game $G^*(A)$, where Player 1 (I) plays pairs of basic open sets (with certain requirements, but they are not necessary for my question), while Player 2 (II) moves by choosing one of those open sets, I plays two open sets from the set that II chose, and so on... (p. 149, Kechris).



Now, in the proof of $Rightarrow$, Kechris does as follows: Assume $sigma$ is a winning strategy for II. Given $xin A$, call a position
begin{align*}
p=((U_0^{(0)},U_1^{(0)}), i_0,...,(U_0^{(n-1)},U_1^{(n-1)}),i_{n-1}),
end{align*}
$i_jin {0,1}$, "good" for $x$, if it has been played according to $sigma$ and $xin U_{i_{n-1}}^{(n-1)}$. He then concludes that for each $xin A$ there is a maximal good $p$ for $x$. Now, if $p$ is maximal good for $x$, then
begin{align*}
xin A_p ={yin U_{i_{n-1}}^{(n-1)}:forall ,, text{legal} ,, (U_0^{(n)},U_1^{(n)}), ,, text{if i is what},, sigma,, text{requires II to play next, then},, ynot in U_i^{(n)}}.
end{align*}
He then claims that $A_p$ contains at most one point, and this is what I cannot convince myself of! Can anyone help me? :)






logic descriptive-set-theory







share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Kechris explains why $A_p$ contains at most one point in the proof ("Now notice that $A_p$ contains at most one point, since..."). What part of this explanation did you not understand?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Jan 9 at 19:46










  • $begingroup$
    Yeah. I don't get, why he assumes that $y_iin U_i^{(n)}$.
    $endgroup$
    – MLS
    Jan 9 at 20:18
















3












$begingroup$


I have a question concerning the proof of this theorem in Kechris' "Classical Descriptive Set Theory."
The rules of the game i as follows:
Let $X$ be a nonempty perfect Polish space with compatible complete metric $d$. Fix a basis ${V_n}$ of nonempty open sets for $X$. Given $Asubseteq X$, consider the game $G^*(A)$, where Player 1 (I) plays pairs of basic open sets (with certain requirements, but they are not necessary for my question), while Player 2 (II) moves by choosing one of those open sets, I plays two open sets from the set that II chose, and so on... (p. 149, Kechris).



Now, in the proof of $Rightarrow$, Kechris does as follows: Assume $sigma$ is a winning strategy for II. Given $xin A$, call a position
begin{align*}
p=((U_0^{(0)},U_1^{(0)}), i_0,...,(U_0^{(n-1)},U_1^{(n-1)}),i_{n-1}),
end{align*}
$i_jin {0,1}$, "good" for $x$, if it has been played according to $sigma$ and $xin U_{i_{n-1}}^{(n-1)}$. He then concludes that for each $xin A$ there is a maximal good $p$ for $x$. Now, if $p$ is maximal good for $x$, then
begin{align*}
xin A_p ={yin U_{i_{n-1}}^{(n-1)}:forall ,, text{legal} ,, (U_0^{(n)},U_1^{(n)}), ,, text{if i is what},, sigma,, text{requires II to play next, then},, ynot in U_i^{(n)}}.
end{align*}
He then claims that $A_p$ contains at most one point, and this is what I cannot convince myself of! Can anyone help me? :)






logic descriptive-set-theory







share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Kechris explains why $A_p$ contains at most one point in the proof ("Now notice that $A_p$ contains at most one point, since..."). What part of this explanation did you not understand?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Jan 9 at 19:46










  • $begingroup$
    Yeah. I don't get, why he assumes that $y_iin U_i^{(n)}$.
    $endgroup$
    – MLS
    Jan 9 at 20:18














3












3








3





$begingroup$


I have a question concerning the proof of this theorem in Kechris' "Classical Descriptive Set Theory."
The rules of the game i as follows:
Let $X$ be a nonempty perfect Polish space with compatible complete metric $d$. Fix a basis ${V_n}$ of nonempty open sets for $X$. Given $Asubseteq X$, consider the game $G^*(A)$, where Player 1 (I) plays pairs of basic open sets (with certain requirements, but they are not necessary for my question), while Player 2 (II) moves by choosing one of those open sets, I plays two open sets from the set that II chose, and so on... (p. 149, Kechris).



Now, in the proof of $Rightarrow$, Kechris does as follows: Assume $sigma$ is a winning strategy for II. Given $xin A$, call a position
begin{align*}
p=((U_0^{(0)},U_1^{(0)}), i_0,...,(U_0^{(n-1)},U_1^{(n-1)}),i_{n-1}),
end{align*}
$i_jin {0,1}$, "good" for $x$, if it has been played according to $sigma$ and $xin U_{i_{n-1}}^{(n-1)}$. He then concludes that for each $xin A$ there is a maximal good $p$ for $x$. Now, if $p$ is maximal good for $x$, then
begin{align*}
xin A_p ={yin U_{i_{n-1}}^{(n-1)}:forall ,, text{legal} ,, (U_0^{(n)},U_1^{(n)}), ,, text{if i is what},, sigma,, text{requires II to play next, then},, ynot in U_i^{(n)}}.
end{align*}
He then claims that $A_p$ contains at most one point, and this is what I cannot convince myself of! Can anyone help me? :)






logic descriptive-set-theory







share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I have a question concerning the proof of this theorem in Kechris' "Classical Descriptive Set Theory."
The rules of the game i as follows:
Let $X$ be a nonempty perfect Polish space with compatible complete metric $d$. Fix a basis ${V_n}$ of nonempty open sets for $X$. Given $Asubseteq X$, consider the game $G^*(A)$, where Player 1 (I) plays pairs of basic open sets (with certain requirements, but they are not necessary for my question), while Player 2 (II) moves by choosing one of those open sets, I plays two open sets from the set that II chose, and so on... (p. 149, Kechris).



Now, in the proof of $Rightarrow$, Kechris does as follows: Assume $sigma$ is a winning strategy for II. Given $xin A$, call a position
begin{align*}
p=((U_0^{(0)},U_1^{(0)}), i_0,...,(U_0^{(n-1)},U_1^{(n-1)}),i_{n-1}),
end{align*}
$i_jin {0,1}$, "good" for $x$, if it has been played according to $sigma$ and $xin U_{i_{n-1}}^{(n-1)}$. He then concludes that for each $xin A$ there is a maximal good $p$ for $x$. Now, if $p$ is maximal good for $x$, then
begin{align*}
xin A_p ={yin U_{i_{n-1}}^{(n-1)}:forall ,, text{legal} ,, (U_0^{(n)},U_1^{(n)}), ,, text{if i is what},, sigma,, text{requires II to play next, then},, ynot in U_i^{(n)}}.
end{align*}
He then claims that $A_p$ contains at most one point, and this is what I cannot convince myself of! Can anyone help me? :)






logic descriptive-set-theory




logic descriptive-set-theory






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jan 9 at 18:24









MLSMLS

233




233












  • $begingroup$
    Kechris explains why $A_p$ contains at most one point in the proof ("Now notice that $A_p$ contains at most one point, since..."). What part of this explanation did you not understand?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Jan 9 at 19:46










  • $begingroup$
    Yeah. I don't get, why he assumes that $y_iin U_i^{(n)}$.
    $endgroup$
    – MLS
    Jan 9 at 20:18


















  • $begingroup$
    Kechris explains why $A_p$ contains at most one point in the proof ("Now notice that $A_p$ contains at most one point, since..."). What part of this explanation did you not understand?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Jan 9 at 19:46










  • $begingroup$
    Yeah. I don't get, why he assumes that $y_iin U_i^{(n)}$.
    $endgroup$
    – MLS
    Jan 9 at 20:18
















$begingroup$
Kechris explains why $A_p$ contains at most one point in the proof ("Now notice that $A_p$ contains at most one point, since..."). What part of this explanation did you not understand?
$endgroup$
– Alex Kruckman
Jan 9 at 19:46




$begingroup$
Kechris explains why $A_p$ contains at most one point in the proof ("Now notice that $A_p$ contains at most one point, since..."). What part of this explanation did you not understand?
$endgroup$
– Alex Kruckman
Jan 9 at 19:46












$begingroup$
Yeah. I don't get, why he assumes that $y_iin U_i^{(n)}$.
$endgroup$
– MLS
Jan 9 at 20:18




$begingroup$
Yeah. I don't get, why he assumes that $y_iin U_i^{(n)}$.
$endgroup$
– MLS
Jan 9 at 20:18










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

Suppose for contradiction that $A_p$ contains more than one point. So we have distinct points $y_0neq y_1$ in $A_psubseteq U^{(n-1)}_{i_{n-1}}$. Now because we're in a Polish space, we can find basic open neighborhoods $y_0in U^{(n)}_0$ and $y_1in U^{(n)}_1$, each with diameter less than $2^{-n}$, such that $overline{U^{(n)}_0}cap overline{U^{(n)}_1} = emptyset$ and $overline{U^{(n)}_0cup U^{(n)}_1} subseteq U^{(n-1)}_{i_{n-1}}$.



So it is legal for Player I to play $(U^{(n)}_0, U^{(n)}_1)$, and the strategy $sigma$ requires Player II to respond with $iin {0,1}$. If $i = 0$, then $y_0in U^{(n)}_i$, contradicting $y_0in A_p$. And if $i = 1$, then $y_1in U^{(n)}_i$, contradicting $y_1in A_p$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    That really helped me - thank you so much!
    $endgroup$
    – MLS
    Jan 9 at 20:34










  • $begingroup$
    @MLS You're welcome! Instead of thanking me in a comment, you can upvote my answer (if you think it's a good answer) and/or accept it (if it settles the question).
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Jan 9 at 20:40










  • $begingroup$
    I'm afraid I can't upvote, I'm too new here.
    $endgroup$
    – MLS
    Jan 9 at 20:42










  • $begingroup$
    @MLS Ah, that's right, I forgot about the reputation restriction on voting.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Jan 9 at 20:43












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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









3












$begingroup$

Suppose for contradiction that $A_p$ contains more than one point. So we have distinct points $y_0neq y_1$ in $A_psubseteq U^{(n-1)}_{i_{n-1}}$. Now because we're in a Polish space, we can find basic open neighborhoods $y_0in U^{(n)}_0$ and $y_1in U^{(n)}_1$, each with diameter less than $2^{-n}$, such that $overline{U^{(n)}_0}cap overline{U^{(n)}_1} = emptyset$ and $overline{U^{(n)}_0cup U^{(n)}_1} subseteq U^{(n-1)}_{i_{n-1}}$.



So it is legal for Player I to play $(U^{(n)}_0, U^{(n)}_1)$, and the strategy $sigma$ requires Player II to respond with $iin {0,1}$. If $i = 0$, then $y_0in U^{(n)}_i$, contradicting $y_0in A_p$. And if $i = 1$, then $y_1in U^{(n)}_i$, contradicting $y_1in A_p$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    That really helped me - thank you so much!
    $endgroup$
    – MLS
    Jan 9 at 20:34










  • $begingroup$
    @MLS You're welcome! Instead of thanking me in a comment, you can upvote my answer (if you think it's a good answer) and/or accept it (if it settles the question).
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Jan 9 at 20:40










  • $begingroup$
    I'm afraid I can't upvote, I'm too new here.
    $endgroup$
    – MLS
    Jan 9 at 20:42










  • $begingroup$
    @MLS Ah, that's right, I forgot about the reputation restriction on voting.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Jan 9 at 20:43
















3












$begingroup$

Suppose for contradiction that $A_p$ contains more than one point. So we have distinct points $y_0neq y_1$ in $A_psubseteq U^{(n-1)}_{i_{n-1}}$. Now because we're in a Polish space, we can find basic open neighborhoods $y_0in U^{(n)}_0$ and $y_1in U^{(n)}_1$, each with diameter less than $2^{-n}$, such that $overline{U^{(n)}_0}cap overline{U^{(n)}_1} = emptyset$ and $overline{U^{(n)}_0cup U^{(n)}_1} subseteq U^{(n-1)}_{i_{n-1}}$.



So it is legal for Player I to play $(U^{(n)}_0, U^{(n)}_1)$, and the strategy $sigma$ requires Player II to respond with $iin {0,1}$. If $i = 0$, then $y_0in U^{(n)}_i$, contradicting $y_0in A_p$. And if $i = 1$, then $y_1in U^{(n)}_i$, contradicting $y_1in A_p$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    That really helped me - thank you so much!
    $endgroup$
    – MLS
    Jan 9 at 20:34










  • $begingroup$
    @MLS You're welcome! Instead of thanking me in a comment, you can upvote my answer (if you think it's a good answer) and/or accept it (if it settles the question).
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Jan 9 at 20:40










  • $begingroup$
    I'm afraid I can't upvote, I'm too new here.
    $endgroup$
    – MLS
    Jan 9 at 20:42










  • $begingroup$
    @MLS Ah, that's right, I forgot about the reputation restriction on voting.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Jan 9 at 20:43














3












3








3





$begingroup$

Suppose for contradiction that $A_p$ contains more than one point. So we have distinct points $y_0neq y_1$ in $A_psubseteq U^{(n-1)}_{i_{n-1}}$. Now because we're in a Polish space, we can find basic open neighborhoods $y_0in U^{(n)}_0$ and $y_1in U^{(n)}_1$, each with diameter less than $2^{-n}$, such that $overline{U^{(n)}_0}cap overline{U^{(n)}_1} = emptyset$ and $overline{U^{(n)}_0cup U^{(n)}_1} subseteq U^{(n-1)}_{i_{n-1}}$.



So it is legal for Player I to play $(U^{(n)}_0, U^{(n)}_1)$, and the strategy $sigma$ requires Player II to respond with $iin {0,1}$. If $i = 0$, then $y_0in U^{(n)}_i$, contradicting $y_0in A_p$. And if $i = 1$, then $y_1in U^{(n)}_i$, contradicting $y_1in A_p$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Suppose for contradiction that $A_p$ contains more than one point. So we have distinct points $y_0neq y_1$ in $A_psubseteq U^{(n-1)}_{i_{n-1}}$. Now because we're in a Polish space, we can find basic open neighborhoods $y_0in U^{(n)}_0$ and $y_1in U^{(n)}_1$, each with diameter less than $2^{-n}$, such that $overline{U^{(n)}_0}cap overline{U^{(n)}_1} = emptyset$ and $overline{U^{(n)}_0cup U^{(n)}_1} subseteq U^{(n-1)}_{i_{n-1}}$.



So it is legal for Player I to play $(U^{(n)}_0, U^{(n)}_1)$, and the strategy $sigma$ requires Player II to respond with $iin {0,1}$. If $i = 0$, then $y_0in U^{(n)}_i$, contradicting $y_0in A_p$. And if $i = 1$, then $y_1in U^{(n)}_i$, contradicting $y_1in A_p$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 9 at 20:28









Alex KruckmanAlex Kruckman

28.4k32758




28.4k32758












  • $begingroup$
    That really helped me - thank you so much!
    $endgroup$
    – MLS
    Jan 9 at 20:34










  • $begingroup$
    @MLS You're welcome! Instead of thanking me in a comment, you can upvote my answer (if you think it's a good answer) and/or accept it (if it settles the question).
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Jan 9 at 20:40










  • $begingroup$
    I'm afraid I can't upvote, I'm too new here.
    $endgroup$
    – MLS
    Jan 9 at 20:42










  • $begingroup$
    @MLS Ah, that's right, I forgot about the reputation restriction on voting.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Jan 9 at 20:43


















  • $begingroup$
    That really helped me - thank you so much!
    $endgroup$
    – MLS
    Jan 9 at 20:34










  • $begingroup$
    @MLS You're welcome! Instead of thanking me in a comment, you can upvote my answer (if you think it's a good answer) and/or accept it (if it settles the question).
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Jan 9 at 20:40










  • $begingroup$
    I'm afraid I can't upvote, I'm too new here.
    $endgroup$
    – MLS
    Jan 9 at 20:42










  • $begingroup$
    @MLS Ah, that's right, I forgot about the reputation restriction on voting.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Jan 9 at 20:43
















$begingroup$
That really helped me - thank you so much!
$endgroup$
– MLS
Jan 9 at 20:34




$begingroup$
That really helped me - thank you so much!
$endgroup$
– MLS
Jan 9 at 20:34












$begingroup$
@MLS You're welcome! Instead of thanking me in a comment, you can upvote my answer (if you think it's a good answer) and/or accept it (if it settles the question).
$endgroup$
– Alex Kruckman
Jan 9 at 20:40




$begingroup$
@MLS You're welcome! Instead of thanking me in a comment, you can upvote my answer (if you think it's a good answer) and/or accept it (if it settles the question).
$endgroup$
– Alex Kruckman
Jan 9 at 20:40












$begingroup$
I'm afraid I can't upvote, I'm too new here.
$endgroup$
– MLS
Jan 9 at 20:42




$begingroup$
I'm afraid I can't upvote, I'm too new here.
$endgroup$
– MLS
Jan 9 at 20:42












$begingroup$
@MLS Ah, that's right, I forgot about the reputation restriction on voting.
$endgroup$
– Alex Kruckman
Jan 9 at 20:43




$begingroup$
@MLS Ah, that's right, I forgot about the reputation restriction on voting.
$endgroup$
– Alex Kruckman
Jan 9 at 20:43


















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