Probability Defective Items Binomial Distribution












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Suppose that a large lot with 10000 manufactured items has 30 percent defective items and 70 percent nondefective. You choose a subset of 10 items to test.
(a) What is the probability that at most 1 of the 10 test items is defective?
(b) Approximate the previous answer using the binomial distribution.



I am getting for (a) that $P(text{at most 1 def item}) = 0.7^{10} + {10choose 1} cdot 0.3^1 cdot 0.7^9$



I do not understand what is meant by (b), since the answer for (a) already uses binomial distribution?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Suppose that a large lot with 10000 manufactured items has 30 percent defective items and 70 percent nondefective. You choose a subset of 10 items to test.
    (a) What is the probability that at most 1 of the 10 test items is defective?
    (b) Approximate the previous answer using the binomial distribution.



    I am getting for (a) that $P(text{at most 1 def item}) = 0.7^{10} + {10choose 1} cdot 0.3^1 cdot 0.7^9$



    I do not understand what is meant by (b), since the answer for (a) already uses binomial distribution?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Suppose that a large lot with 10000 manufactured items has 30 percent defective items and 70 percent nondefective. You choose a subset of 10 items to test.
      (a) What is the probability that at most 1 of the 10 test items is defective?
      (b) Approximate the previous answer using the binomial distribution.



      I am getting for (a) that $P(text{at most 1 def item}) = 0.7^{10} + {10choose 1} cdot 0.3^1 cdot 0.7^9$



      I do not understand what is meant by (b), since the answer for (a) already uses binomial distribution?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Suppose that a large lot with 10000 manufactured items has 30 percent defective items and 70 percent nondefective. You choose a subset of 10 items to test.
      (a) What is the probability that at most 1 of the 10 test items is defective?
      (b) Approximate the previous answer using the binomial distribution.



      I am getting for (a) that $P(text{at most 1 def item}) = 0.7^{10} + {10choose 1} cdot 0.3^1 cdot 0.7^9$



      I do not understand what is meant by (b), since the answer for (a) already uses binomial distribution?







      probability binomial-distribution






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      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jul 21 '15 at 3:19









      Conrado Costa

      4,4421032




      4,4421032










      asked Jul 21 '15 at 3:14









      Dee ChantelleDee Chantelle

      707




      707






















          2 Answers
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          0












          $begingroup$

          The $10$ items are not chosen independently since they are chosen without replacement. If it were with replacement, with a tiny chance that the same item might be chosen more than once, then the binomial distribution would be exact rather than a very close approximation. As it is, part (a) must use a hypergeometric distribution. The answer you've written for part (a) is in fact a correct answer to part (b).






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            so the answer for (a) would be 3000C0 * 7000 C 10 / 10000 C 10 +3000 C1 * 7000 C9 /10000 C 10 ?
            $endgroup$
            – Dee Chantelle
            Jul 21 '15 at 3:22










          • $begingroup$
            @DeeChantelle Yes.
            $endgroup$
            – Graham Kemp
            Jul 21 '15 at 3:25










          • $begingroup$
            The hypergeometric distribution has the same expected value as the binomial distribution and a very slightly smaller variance. If instead of 10000 there were only 40, then the variance of the hypergeometric distribution would be far smaller, but the variance of the binomial distribution would still be the same.
            $endgroup$
            – Michael Hardy
            Jul 21 '15 at 3:28



















          0












          $begingroup$

          The binomial distribution is only an approximation



          More explicitly



          $P(text{at most 1 defective }) = P(text{ no defective item}) + P(text{1 defective item}) \= frac{7000}{10000}frac{6999}{9999}ldots frac{6991}{9991} + 10 frac{3000}{10000}frac{7000}{9999}frac{6999}{9998} ldots frac{6992}{9991} $






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$














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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            0












            $begingroup$

            The $10$ items are not chosen independently since they are chosen without replacement. If it were with replacement, with a tiny chance that the same item might be chosen more than once, then the binomial distribution would be exact rather than a very close approximation. As it is, part (a) must use a hypergeometric distribution. The answer you've written for part (a) is in fact a correct answer to part (b).






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              so the answer for (a) would be 3000C0 * 7000 C 10 / 10000 C 10 +3000 C1 * 7000 C9 /10000 C 10 ?
              $endgroup$
              – Dee Chantelle
              Jul 21 '15 at 3:22










            • $begingroup$
              @DeeChantelle Yes.
              $endgroup$
              – Graham Kemp
              Jul 21 '15 at 3:25










            • $begingroup$
              The hypergeometric distribution has the same expected value as the binomial distribution and a very slightly smaller variance. If instead of 10000 there were only 40, then the variance of the hypergeometric distribution would be far smaller, but the variance of the binomial distribution would still be the same.
              $endgroup$
              – Michael Hardy
              Jul 21 '15 at 3:28
















            0












            $begingroup$

            The $10$ items are not chosen independently since they are chosen without replacement. If it were with replacement, with a tiny chance that the same item might be chosen more than once, then the binomial distribution would be exact rather than a very close approximation. As it is, part (a) must use a hypergeometric distribution. The answer you've written for part (a) is in fact a correct answer to part (b).






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              so the answer for (a) would be 3000C0 * 7000 C 10 / 10000 C 10 +3000 C1 * 7000 C9 /10000 C 10 ?
              $endgroup$
              – Dee Chantelle
              Jul 21 '15 at 3:22










            • $begingroup$
              @DeeChantelle Yes.
              $endgroup$
              – Graham Kemp
              Jul 21 '15 at 3:25










            • $begingroup$
              The hypergeometric distribution has the same expected value as the binomial distribution and a very slightly smaller variance. If instead of 10000 there were only 40, then the variance of the hypergeometric distribution would be far smaller, but the variance of the binomial distribution would still be the same.
              $endgroup$
              – Michael Hardy
              Jul 21 '15 at 3:28














            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            The $10$ items are not chosen independently since they are chosen without replacement. If it were with replacement, with a tiny chance that the same item might be chosen more than once, then the binomial distribution would be exact rather than a very close approximation. As it is, part (a) must use a hypergeometric distribution. The answer you've written for part (a) is in fact a correct answer to part (b).






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            The $10$ items are not chosen independently since they are chosen without replacement. If it were with replacement, with a tiny chance that the same item might be chosen more than once, then the binomial distribution would be exact rather than a very close approximation. As it is, part (a) must use a hypergeometric distribution. The answer you've written for part (a) is in fact a correct answer to part (b).







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Jul 21 '15 at 3:29

























            answered Jul 21 '15 at 3:21









            Michael HardyMichael Hardy

            1




            1












            • $begingroup$
              so the answer for (a) would be 3000C0 * 7000 C 10 / 10000 C 10 +3000 C1 * 7000 C9 /10000 C 10 ?
              $endgroup$
              – Dee Chantelle
              Jul 21 '15 at 3:22










            • $begingroup$
              @DeeChantelle Yes.
              $endgroup$
              – Graham Kemp
              Jul 21 '15 at 3:25










            • $begingroup$
              The hypergeometric distribution has the same expected value as the binomial distribution and a very slightly smaller variance. If instead of 10000 there were only 40, then the variance of the hypergeometric distribution would be far smaller, but the variance of the binomial distribution would still be the same.
              $endgroup$
              – Michael Hardy
              Jul 21 '15 at 3:28


















            • $begingroup$
              so the answer for (a) would be 3000C0 * 7000 C 10 / 10000 C 10 +3000 C1 * 7000 C9 /10000 C 10 ?
              $endgroup$
              – Dee Chantelle
              Jul 21 '15 at 3:22










            • $begingroup$
              @DeeChantelle Yes.
              $endgroup$
              – Graham Kemp
              Jul 21 '15 at 3:25










            • $begingroup$
              The hypergeometric distribution has the same expected value as the binomial distribution and a very slightly smaller variance. If instead of 10000 there were only 40, then the variance of the hypergeometric distribution would be far smaller, but the variance of the binomial distribution would still be the same.
              $endgroup$
              – Michael Hardy
              Jul 21 '15 at 3:28
















            $begingroup$
            so the answer for (a) would be 3000C0 * 7000 C 10 / 10000 C 10 +3000 C1 * 7000 C9 /10000 C 10 ?
            $endgroup$
            – Dee Chantelle
            Jul 21 '15 at 3:22




            $begingroup$
            so the answer for (a) would be 3000C0 * 7000 C 10 / 10000 C 10 +3000 C1 * 7000 C9 /10000 C 10 ?
            $endgroup$
            – Dee Chantelle
            Jul 21 '15 at 3:22












            $begingroup$
            @DeeChantelle Yes.
            $endgroup$
            – Graham Kemp
            Jul 21 '15 at 3:25




            $begingroup$
            @DeeChantelle Yes.
            $endgroup$
            – Graham Kemp
            Jul 21 '15 at 3:25












            $begingroup$
            The hypergeometric distribution has the same expected value as the binomial distribution and a very slightly smaller variance. If instead of 10000 there were only 40, then the variance of the hypergeometric distribution would be far smaller, but the variance of the binomial distribution would still be the same.
            $endgroup$
            – Michael Hardy
            Jul 21 '15 at 3:28




            $begingroup$
            The hypergeometric distribution has the same expected value as the binomial distribution and a very slightly smaller variance. If instead of 10000 there were only 40, then the variance of the hypergeometric distribution would be far smaller, but the variance of the binomial distribution would still be the same.
            $endgroup$
            – Michael Hardy
            Jul 21 '15 at 3:28











            0












            $begingroup$

            The binomial distribution is only an approximation



            More explicitly



            $P(text{at most 1 defective }) = P(text{ no defective item}) + P(text{1 defective item}) \= frac{7000}{10000}frac{6999}{9999}ldots frac{6991}{9991} + 10 frac{3000}{10000}frac{7000}{9999}frac{6999}{9998} ldots frac{6992}{9991} $






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              0












              $begingroup$

              The binomial distribution is only an approximation



              More explicitly



              $P(text{at most 1 defective }) = P(text{ no defective item}) + P(text{1 defective item}) \= frac{7000}{10000}frac{6999}{9999}ldots frac{6991}{9991} + 10 frac{3000}{10000}frac{7000}{9999}frac{6999}{9998} ldots frac{6992}{9991} $






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                The binomial distribution is only an approximation



                More explicitly



                $P(text{at most 1 defective }) = P(text{ no defective item}) + P(text{1 defective item}) \= frac{7000}{10000}frac{6999}{9999}ldots frac{6991}{9991} + 10 frac{3000}{10000}frac{7000}{9999}frac{6999}{9998} ldots frac{6992}{9991} $






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                The binomial distribution is only an approximation



                More explicitly



                $P(text{at most 1 defective }) = P(text{ no defective item}) + P(text{1 defective item}) \= frac{7000}{10000}frac{6999}{9999}ldots frac{6991}{9991} + 10 frac{3000}{10000}frac{7000}{9999}frac{6999}{9998} ldots frac{6992}{9991} $







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jul 21 '15 at 3:30









                Conrado CostaConrado Costa

                4,4421032




                4,4421032






























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