Associative property in a ring












0














Let $R$ a ring and we define $$text{seq}R={f=(a_0,a_1,dots,);|;a_iin R}.$$



On this set we define the following operation: let $f=(a_n)_{nge0}$ and $g=(b_n)_{nge0}$ $$fg=(c_0,c_1,dots,),$$ where $$c_k=sum_{i+j=k} a_ib_j.$$



My problem is to prove that this product is associative.



That is let $f=(a_n)_{nge0}, g=(b_n)_{nge 0}, h=(c_n)_{nge 0}$. I must prove that $(fg)h=f(gh)$.



Now
$$(fg)h=(d_0,d_1,dots,)(c_0,c_1,dots),$$
where $d_k=sum_{i+j=k} a_ib_j$. Then $$(fg)h=(d_0,d_1,dots,)(c_0,c_1,dots,)=(e_0,e_1,dots),$$
where $$e_s=sum_{k+t=s}d_kc_t,$$
therefore $$e_s=sum_{k+t=s}bigg(sum_{i+j=k}a_ib_jbigg)c_t.$$



How can I proceed now to show that $(fg)h=f(gh)$?



Thanks!










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    0














    Let $R$ a ring and we define $$text{seq}R={f=(a_0,a_1,dots,);|;a_iin R}.$$



    On this set we define the following operation: let $f=(a_n)_{nge0}$ and $g=(b_n)_{nge0}$ $$fg=(c_0,c_1,dots,),$$ where $$c_k=sum_{i+j=k} a_ib_j.$$



    My problem is to prove that this product is associative.



    That is let $f=(a_n)_{nge0}, g=(b_n)_{nge 0}, h=(c_n)_{nge 0}$. I must prove that $(fg)h=f(gh)$.



    Now
    $$(fg)h=(d_0,d_1,dots,)(c_0,c_1,dots),$$
    where $d_k=sum_{i+j=k} a_ib_j$. Then $$(fg)h=(d_0,d_1,dots,)(c_0,c_1,dots,)=(e_0,e_1,dots),$$
    where $$e_s=sum_{k+t=s}d_kc_t,$$
    therefore $$e_s=sum_{k+t=s}bigg(sum_{i+j=k}a_ib_jbigg)c_t.$$



    How can I proceed now to show that $(fg)h=f(gh)$?



    Thanks!










    share|cite|improve this question



























      0












      0








      0







      Let $R$ a ring and we define $$text{seq}R={f=(a_0,a_1,dots,);|;a_iin R}.$$



      On this set we define the following operation: let $f=(a_n)_{nge0}$ and $g=(b_n)_{nge0}$ $$fg=(c_0,c_1,dots,),$$ where $$c_k=sum_{i+j=k} a_ib_j.$$



      My problem is to prove that this product is associative.



      That is let $f=(a_n)_{nge0}, g=(b_n)_{nge 0}, h=(c_n)_{nge 0}$. I must prove that $(fg)h=f(gh)$.



      Now
      $$(fg)h=(d_0,d_1,dots,)(c_0,c_1,dots),$$
      where $d_k=sum_{i+j=k} a_ib_j$. Then $$(fg)h=(d_0,d_1,dots,)(c_0,c_1,dots,)=(e_0,e_1,dots),$$
      where $$e_s=sum_{k+t=s}d_kc_t,$$
      therefore $$e_s=sum_{k+t=s}bigg(sum_{i+j=k}a_ib_jbigg)c_t.$$



      How can I proceed now to show that $(fg)h=f(gh)$?



      Thanks!










      share|cite|improve this question















      Let $R$ a ring and we define $$text{seq}R={f=(a_0,a_1,dots,);|;a_iin R}.$$



      On this set we define the following operation: let $f=(a_n)_{nge0}$ and $g=(b_n)_{nge0}$ $$fg=(c_0,c_1,dots,),$$ where $$c_k=sum_{i+j=k} a_ib_j.$$



      My problem is to prove that this product is associative.



      That is let $f=(a_n)_{nge0}, g=(b_n)_{nge 0}, h=(c_n)_{nge 0}$. I must prove that $(fg)h=f(gh)$.



      Now
      $$(fg)h=(d_0,d_1,dots,)(c_0,c_1,dots),$$
      where $d_k=sum_{i+j=k} a_ib_j$. Then $$(fg)h=(d_0,d_1,dots,)(c_0,c_1,dots,)=(e_0,e_1,dots),$$
      where $$e_s=sum_{k+t=s}d_kc_t,$$
      therefore $$e_s=sum_{k+t=s}bigg(sum_{i+j=k}a_ib_jbigg)c_t.$$



      How can I proceed now to show that $(fg)h=f(gh)$?



      Thanks!







      proof-verification proof-writing proof-explanation






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      edited Dec 10 at 9:51

























      asked Dec 8 at 16:47









      Jack J.

      4361419




      4361419






















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          Letting $a_n=b_n=c_n=0$ for $n<0$, you can rewrite the formula as
          $$
          e_s=sum_{k=0}^inftybiggl(sum_{i=0}^{infty}a_ib_{k-i}biggr)c_{s-k}=
          sum_{k=0}^{infty}sum_{i=0}^{infty}a_ib_{k-i}c_{s-k}
          $$

          and now you can switch the sums:
          $$
          e_s=sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{k=0}^{infty}a_ib_{k-i}c_{s-k}=
          sum_{i=0}^infty a_ibiggl(sum_{k=0}^{infty}b_{k-i}c_{s-k}biggr)
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks for your ansewer. Why can we exchange the sums?
            – Jack J.
            Dec 10 at 21:19






          • 1




            @JackJ. That's the part left as an exercise (hint: they're actually finite sums).
            – egreg
            Dec 10 at 21:36











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          Letting $a_n=b_n=c_n=0$ for $n<0$, you can rewrite the formula as
          $$
          e_s=sum_{k=0}^inftybiggl(sum_{i=0}^{infty}a_ib_{k-i}biggr)c_{s-k}=
          sum_{k=0}^{infty}sum_{i=0}^{infty}a_ib_{k-i}c_{s-k}
          $$

          and now you can switch the sums:
          $$
          e_s=sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{k=0}^{infty}a_ib_{k-i}c_{s-k}=
          sum_{i=0}^infty a_ibiggl(sum_{k=0}^{infty}b_{k-i}c_{s-k}biggr)
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks for your ansewer. Why can we exchange the sums?
            – Jack J.
            Dec 10 at 21:19






          • 1




            @JackJ. That's the part left as an exercise (hint: they're actually finite sums).
            – egreg
            Dec 10 at 21:36
















          1














          Letting $a_n=b_n=c_n=0$ for $n<0$, you can rewrite the formula as
          $$
          e_s=sum_{k=0}^inftybiggl(sum_{i=0}^{infty}a_ib_{k-i}biggr)c_{s-k}=
          sum_{k=0}^{infty}sum_{i=0}^{infty}a_ib_{k-i}c_{s-k}
          $$

          and now you can switch the sums:
          $$
          e_s=sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{k=0}^{infty}a_ib_{k-i}c_{s-k}=
          sum_{i=0}^infty a_ibiggl(sum_{k=0}^{infty}b_{k-i}c_{s-k}biggr)
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks for your ansewer. Why can we exchange the sums?
            – Jack J.
            Dec 10 at 21:19






          • 1




            @JackJ. That's the part left as an exercise (hint: they're actually finite sums).
            – egreg
            Dec 10 at 21:36














          1












          1








          1






          Letting $a_n=b_n=c_n=0$ for $n<0$, you can rewrite the formula as
          $$
          e_s=sum_{k=0}^inftybiggl(sum_{i=0}^{infty}a_ib_{k-i}biggr)c_{s-k}=
          sum_{k=0}^{infty}sum_{i=0}^{infty}a_ib_{k-i}c_{s-k}
          $$

          and now you can switch the sums:
          $$
          e_s=sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{k=0}^{infty}a_ib_{k-i}c_{s-k}=
          sum_{i=0}^infty a_ibiggl(sum_{k=0}^{infty}b_{k-i}c_{s-k}biggr)
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Letting $a_n=b_n=c_n=0$ for $n<0$, you can rewrite the formula as
          $$
          e_s=sum_{k=0}^inftybiggl(sum_{i=0}^{infty}a_ib_{k-i}biggr)c_{s-k}=
          sum_{k=0}^{infty}sum_{i=0}^{infty}a_ib_{k-i}c_{s-k}
          $$

          and now you can switch the sums:
          $$
          e_s=sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{k=0}^{infty}a_ib_{k-i}c_{s-k}=
          sum_{i=0}^infty a_ibiggl(sum_{k=0}^{infty}b_{k-i}c_{s-k}biggr)
          $$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 10 at 11:54









          egreg

          177k1484200




          177k1484200












          • Thanks for your ansewer. Why can we exchange the sums?
            – Jack J.
            Dec 10 at 21:19






          • 1




            @JackJ. That's the part left as an exercise (hint: they're actually finite sums).
            – egreg
            Dec 10 at 21:36


















          • Thanks for your ansewer. Why can we exchange the sums?
            – Jack J.
            Dec 10 at 21:19






          • 1




            @JackJ. That's the part left as an exercise (hint: they're actually finite sums).
            – egreg
            Dec 10 at 21:36
















          Thanks for your ansewer. Why can we exchange the sums?
          – Jack J.
          Dec 10 at 21:19




          Thanks for your ansewer. Why can we exchange the sums?
          – Jack J.
          Dec 10 at 21:19




          1




          1




          @JackJ. That's the part left as an exercise (hint: they're actually finite sums).
          – egreg
          Dec 10 at 21:36




          @JackJ. That's the part left as an exercise (hint: they're actually finite sums).
          – egreg
          Dec 10 at 21:36


















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