Distribution of a squared standard Brownian motion











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During a self study I encountered the following issue:



I got a standard Brownian motion $B(t)$ on the interval $[0,1]$ which is $N(0,t)$ distributed by definition, but now I want to figure out the distribution of $B^2(t)$. I assume its a $chi^2$ - distribution, but im not sure how to show it.



One approach I see is using the fact that $B(1) sim N(0,1)$ and thus $B^2(1) sim chi^2(1)$, but I dont think its correct to rewrite $B^2(t) stackrel{d}{=} t B(1)$ and receiving a $chi^2$ - distribution this way.



Can anyone point me in the right direction? Thank you!










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    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    During a self study I encountered the following issue:



    I got a standard Brownian motion $B(t)$ on the interval $[0,1]$ which is $N(0,t)$ distributed by definition, but now I want to figure out the distribution of $B^2(t)$. I assume its a $chi^2$ - distribution, but im not sure how to show it.



    One approach I see is using the fact that $B(1) sim N(0,1)$ and thus $B^2(1) sim chi^2(1)$, but I dont think its correct to rewrite $B^2(t) stackrel{d}{=} t B(1)$ and receiving a $chi^2$ - distribution this way.



    Can anyone point me in the right direction? Thank you!










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      During a self study I encountered the following issue:



      I got a standard Brownian motion $B(t)$ on the interval $[0,1]$ which is $N(0,t)$ distributed by definition, but now I want to figure out the distribution of $B^2(t)$. I assume its a $chi^2$ - distribution, but im not sure how to show it.



      One approach I see is using the fact that $B(1) sim N(0,1)$ and thus $B^2(1) sim chi^2(1)$, but I dont think its correct to rewrite $B^2(t) stackrel{d}{=} t B(1)$ and receiving a $chi^2$ - distribution this way.



      Can anyone point me in the right direction? Thank you!










      share|cite|improve this question













      During a self study I encountered the following issue:



      I got a standard Brownian motion $B(t)$ on the interval $[0,1]$ which is $N(0,t)$ distributed by definition, but now I want to figure out the distribution of $B^2(t)$. I assume its a $chi^2$ - distribution, but im not sure how to show it.



      One approach I see is using the fact that $B(1) sim N(0,1)$ and thus $B^2(1) sim chi^2(1)$, but I dont think its correct to rewrite $B^2(t) stackrel{d}{=} t B(1)$ and receiving a $chi^2$ - distribution this way.



      Can anyone point me in the right direction? Thank you!







      brownian-motion chi-squared






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      asked Dec 5 at 13:08









      Bazzan

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          Since $B(t)sim N(0,t)$, we have that $B(t)=t^{1/2}cdot t^{-1/2}B(t)$, where $t^{-1/2}B(t)sim N(0,1)$. Hence, $B^2(t)=tQ$, where $Q$ is the chi-squared distribution with $1$ degree of freedom. Indeed, it is correct to write $B^2(t)stackrel{d}{=}tB^2(1)$ since $B^2(1)$ has the chi-squared distribution with $1$ degree of freedom.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Thank you! This was much easier than I thought
            – Bazzan
            Dec 5 at 13:16










          • @Bazzan You're welcome!
            – Cm7F7Bb
            Dec 5 at 13:20











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          accepted










          Since $B(t)sim N(0,t)$, we have that $B(t)=t^{1/2}cdot t^{-1/2}B(t)$, where $t^{-1/2}B(t)sim N(0,1)$. Hence, $B^2(t)=tQ$, where $Q$ is the chi-squared distribution with $1$ degree of freedom. Indeed, it is correct to write $B^2(t)stackrel{d}{=}tB^2(1)$ since $B^2(1)$ has the chi-squared distribution with $1$ degree of freedom.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Thank you! This was much easier than I thought
            – Bazzan
            Dec 5 at 13:16










          • @Bazzan You're welcome!
            – Cm7F7Bb
            Dec 5 at 13:20















          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          Since $B(t)sim N(0,t)$, we have that $B(t)=t^{1/2}cdot t^{-1/2}B(t)$, where $t^{-1/2}B(t)sim N(0,1)$. Hence, $B^2(t)=tQ$, where $Q$ is the chi-squared distribution with $1$ degree of freedom. Indeed, it is correct to write $B^2(t)stackrel{d}{=}tB^2(1)$ since $B^2(1)$ has the chi-squared distribution with $1$ degree of freedom.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Thank you! This was much easier than I thought
            – Bazzan
            Dec 5 at 13:16










          • @Bazzan You're welcome!
            – Cm7F7Bb
            Dec 5 at 13:20













          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted






          Since $B(t)sim N(0,t)$, we have that $B(t)=t^{1/2}cdot t^{-1/2}B(t)$, where $t^{-1/2}B(t)sim N(0,1)$. Hence, $B^2(t)=tQ$, where $Q$ is the chi-squared distribution with $1$ degree of freedom. Indeed, it is correct to write $B^2(t)stackrel{d}{=}tB^2(1)$ since $B^2(1)$ has the chi-squared distribution with $1$ degree of freedom.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Since $B(t)sim N(0,t)$, we have that $B(t)=t^{1/2}cdot t^{-1/2}B(t)$, where $t^{-1/2}B(t)sim N(0,1)$. Hence, $B^2(t)=tQ$, where $Q$ is the chi-squared distribution with $1$ degree of freedom. Indeed, it is correct to write $B^2(t)stackrel{d}{=}tB^2(1)$ since $B^2(1)$ has the chi-squared distribution with $1$ degree of freedom.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 5 at 13:16

























          answered Dec 5 at 13:14









          Cm7F7Bb

          12.4k32142




          12.4k32142












          • Thank you! This was much easier than I thought
            – Bazzan
            Dec 5 at 13:16










          • @Bazzan You're welcome!
            – Cm7F7Bb
            Dec 5 at 13:20


















          • Thank you! This was much easier than I thought
            – Bazzan
            Dec 5 at 13:16










          • @Bazzan You're welcome!
            – Cm7F7Bb
            Dec 5 at 13:20
















          Thank you! This was much easier than I thought
          – Bazzan
          Dec 5 at 13:16




          Thank you! This was much easier than I thought
          – Bazzan
          Dec 5 at 13:16












          @Bazzan You're welcome!
          – Cm7F7Bb
          Dec 5 at 13:20




          @Bazzan You're welcome!
          – Cm7F7Bb
          Dec 5 at 13:20


















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