Prove/Disprove $sum a_n$ and $sum b_n$ converge together iff $underset{nto infty }{mathop{lim }},{{a}_{n}/b_n...











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  • True/False: $mathop {lim }limits_{n to infty } {{{a_n}} over {{b_n}}} = 1$ implies $sum {{a_n},sum {{b_n}} } $ converge or diverge together.

    3 answers




Prove/Disprove that if $sum a_n$ and $sum b_n$ are some series and $underset{nto infty }{mathop{lim }},{{a}_{n}/b_n } = 1$ then the series converge together or not converge together.



This doesn't seem to be correct to me so maybe there is some counter example. i know this is true if both series are strictly nonnegative (from the first series comparison test) - how does it change if both are negative (or alternate?)










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marked as duplicate by Chinnapparaj R, Cm7F7Bb, Community Dec 5 at 13:10


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.















  • This is true for series with a posiitve (or negative) general term. It is the criterion by equivalence of functions.
    – Bernard
    Dec 5 at 13:00










  • Thank you very much everyone for your time, turns out it was a duplicate..
    – Boaz Yakubov
    Dec 5 at 13:11















up vote
0
down vote

favorite













This question already has an answer here:




  • True/False: $mathop {lim }limits_{n to infty } {{{a_n}} over {{b_n}}} = 1$ implies $sum {{a_n},sum {{b_n}} } $ converge or diverge together.

    3 answers




Prove/Disprove that if $sum a_n$ and $sum b_n$ are some series and $underset{nto infty }{mathop{lim }},{{a}_{n}/b_n } = 1$ then the series converge together or not converge together.



This doesn't seem to be correct to me so maybe there is some counter example. i know this is true if both series are strictly nonnegative (from the first series comparison test) - how does it change if both are negative (or alternate?)










share|cite|improve this question













marked as duplicate by Chinnapparaj R, Cm7F7Bb, Community Dec 5 at 13:10


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.















  • This is true for series with a posiitve (or negative) general term. It is the criterion by equivalence of functions.
    – Bernard
    Dec 5 at 13:00










  • Thank you very much everyone for your time, turns out it was a duplicate..
    – Boaz Yakubov
    Dec 5 at 13:11













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite












This question already has an answer here:




  • True/False: $mathop {lim }limits_{n to infty } {{{a_n}} over {{b_n}}} = 1$ implies $sum {{a_n},sum {{b_n}} } $ converge or diverge together.

    3 answers




Prove/Disprove that if $sum a_n$ and $sum b_n$ are some series and $underset{nto infty }{mathop{lim }},{{a}_{n}/b_n } = 1$ then the series converge together or not converge together.



This doesn't seem to be correct to me so maybe there is some counter example. i know this is true if both series are strictly nonnegative (from the first series comparison test) - how does it change if both are negative (or alternate?)










share|cite|improve this question














This question already has an answer here:




  • True/False: $mathop {lim }limits_{n to infty } {{{a_n}} over {{b_n}}} = 1$ implies $sum {{a_n},sum {{b_n}} } $ converge or diverge together.

    3 answers




Prove/Disprove that if $sum a_n$ and $sum b_n$ are some series and $underset{nto infty }{mathop{lim }},{{a}_{n}/b_n } = 1$ then the series converge together or not converge together.



This doesn't seem to be correct to me so maybe there is some counter example. i know this is true if both series are strictly nonnegative (from the first series comparison test) - how does it change if both are negative (or alternate?)





This question already has an answer here:




  • True/False: $mathop {lim }limits_{n to infty } {{{a_n}} over {{b_n}}} = 1$ implies $sum {{a_n},sum {{b_n}} } $ converge or diverge together.

    3 answers








calculus sequences-and-series limits convergence






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asked Dec 5 at 12:49









Boaz Yakubov

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marked as duplicate by Chinnapparaj R, Cm7F7Bb, Community Dec 5 at 13:10


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.






marked as duplicate by Chinnapparaj R, Cm7F7Bb, Community Dec 5 at 13:10


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • This is true for series with a posiitve (or negative) general term. It is the criterion by equivalence of functions.
    – Bernard
    Dec 5 at 13:00










  • Thank you very much everyone for your time, turns out it was a duplicate..
    – Boaz Yakubov
    Dec 5 at 13:11


















  • This is true for series with a posiitve (or negative) general term. It is the criterion by equivalence of functions.
    – Bernard
    Dec 5 at 13:00










  • Thank you very much everyone for your time, turns out it was a duplicate..
    – Boaz Yakubov
    Dec 5 at 13:11
















This is true for series with a posiitve (or negative) general term. It is the criterion by equivalence of functions.
– Bernard
Dec 5 at 13:00




This is true for series with a posiitve (or negative) general term. It is the criterion by equivalence of functions.
– Bernard
Dec 5 at 13:00












Thank you very much everyone for your time, turns out it was a duplicate..
– Boaz Yakubov
Dec 5 at 13:11




Thank you very much everyone for your time, turns out it was a duplicate..
– Boaz Yakubov
Dec 5 at 13:11










2 Answers
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up vote
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If $underset{nto infty }{mathop{lim }},{{a}_{n}/b_n } = 1$ ,
then $$(exists Nin Bbb N, forall n > N):; frac{1}{2}a_n le b_nle frac{3}{2}a_n$$



Thus if $sum a_n$ converges then so does $sum b_n$ and vice versa



Update As stated in the comment this is infact only true if $a_n$ and $b_n$ keep a constant sign (positive or negative) after a certain n. Otherwise it's false: cf. the counter example given below






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  • 1




    @A.Pongrácz For series of positive numbers this is a complete proof. In the example you give, both series diverge.
    – MaoWao
    Dec 5 at 13:09


















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0
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A counterexample is:
$$a_n = frac{(-1)^n}{sqrt{n}} text{ and } b_n = frac{(-1)^n}{sqrt{n} + (-1)^n}.$$






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  • You're right I fixed it.
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Dec 5 at 13:37


















2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
4
down vote













If $underset{nto infty }{mathop{lim }},{{a}_{n}/b_n } = 1$ ,
then $$(exists Nin Bbb N, forall n > N):; frac{1}{2}a_n le b_nle frac{3}{2}a_n$$



Thus if $sum a_n$ converges then so does $sum b_n$ and vice versa



Update As stated in the comment this is infact only true if $a_n$ and $b_n$ keep a constant sign (positive or negative) after a certain n. Otherwise it's false: cf. the counter example given below






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 1




    @A.Pongrácz For series of positive numbers this is a complete proof. In the example you give, both series diverge.
    – MaoWao
    Dec 5 at 13:09















up vote
4
down vote













If $underset{nto infty }{mathop{lim }},{{a}_{n}/b_n } = 1$ ,
then $$(exists Nin Bbb N, forall n > N):; frac{1}{2}a_n le b_nle frac{3}{2}a_n$$



Thus if $sum a_n$ converges then so does $sum b_n$ and vice versa



Update As stated in the comment this is infact only true if $a_n$ and $b_n$ keep a constant sign (positive or negative) after a certain n. Otherwise it's false: cf. the counter example given below






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 1




    @A.Pongrácz For series of positive numbers this is a complete proof. In the example you give, both series diverge.
    – MaoWao
    Dec 5 at 13:09













up vote
4
down vote










up vote
4
down vote









If $underset{nto infty }{mathop{lim }},{{a}_{n}/b_n } = 1$ ,
then $$(exists Nin Bbb N, forall n > N):; frac{1}{2}a_n le b_nle frac{3}{2}a_n$$



Thus if $sum a_n$ converges then so does $sum b_n$ and vice versa



Update As stated in the comment this is infact only true if $a_n$ and $b_n$ keep a constant sign (positive or negative) after a certain n. Otherwise it's false: cf. the counter example given below






share|cite|improve this answer














If $underset{nto infty }{mathop{lim }},{{a}_{n}/b_n } = 1$ ,
then $$(exists Nin Bbb N, forall n > N):; frac{1}{2}a_n le b_nle frac{3}{2}a_n$$



Thus if $sum a_n$ converges then so does $sum b_n$ and vice versa



Update As stated in the comment this is infact only true if $a_n$ and $b_n$ keep a constant sign (positive or negative) after a certain n. Otherwise it's false: cf. the counter example given below







share|cite|improve this answer














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edited Dec 5 at 16:11

























answered Dec 5 at 12:52









TheD0ubleT

37718




37718








  • 1




    @A.Pongrácz For series of positive numbers this is a complete proof. In the example you give, both series diverge.
    – MaoWao
    Dec 5 at 13:09














  • 1




    @A.Pongrácz For series of positive numbers this is a complete proof. In the example you give, both series diverge.
    – MaoWao
    Dec 5 at 13:09








1




1




@A.Pongrácz For series of positive numbers this is a complete proof. In the example you give, both series diverge.
– MaoWao
Dec 5 at 13:09




@A.Pongrácz For series of positive numbers this is a complete proof. In the example you give, both series diverge.
– MaoWao
Dec 5 at 13:09










up vote
0
down vote













A counterexample is:
$$a_n = frac{(-1)^n}{sqrt{n}} text{ and } b_n = frac{(-1)^n}{sqrt{n} + (-1)^n}.$$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • You're right I fixed it.
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Dec 5 at 13:37















up vote
0
down vote













A counterexample is:
$$a_n = frac{(-1)^n}{sqrt{n}} text{ and } b_n = frac{(-1)^n}{sqrt{n} + (-1)^n}.$$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • You're right I fixed it.
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Dec 5 at 13:37













up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









A counterexample is:
$$a_n = frac{(-1)^n}{sqrt{n}} text{ and } b_n = frac{(-1)^n}{sqrt{n} + (-1)^n}.$$






share|cite|improve this answer














A counterexample is:
$$a_n = frac{(-1)^n}{sqrt{n}} text{ and } b_n = frac{(-1)^n}{sqrt{n} + (-1)^n}.$$







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 5 at 13:34

























answered Dec 5 at 12:59









mathcounterexamples.net

23.9k21753




23.9k21753












  • You're right I fixed it.
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Dec 5 at 13:37


















  • You're right I fixed it.
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Dec 5 at 13:37
















You're right I fixed it.
– mathcounterexamples.net
Dec 5 at 13:37




You're right I fixed it.
– mathcounterexamples.net
Dec 5 at 13:37



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