Why is $E[f(X,Y) mid X]=g(X)$?











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Let $X,Y$ be independent and let $f$ be Borel such that $f(X,Y) in L^1(Omega,mathcal{A},P)$. Moreover let
$$
g(x)=E[f(x,Y)] text{ if } vert E[f(x,Y)]vert <infty text{ and } 0 text{ otherwise}
$$

Then show that $g$ is Borel on $mathbb{R}$ and that
$$
E[f(X,Y)mid X]=g(X)
$$



My attempt
1. I am not sure how to go about showing the Borel measurability of $g$ so a hint here would be highly appreciated




  1. In order to show that $E[f(X,Y)mid X]=g(X)$ we need to show that g(X) is $sigma(X)$ measurable which is the case once part 1)(Borel measurability of $g$) is proved.


And we must also show that for all $A in sigma(X)$ we have
begin{equation} label{1}
E[f(X,Y) 1_A]=E[g(X) 1_A]
end{equation}

Now I can show that if $A$ is of the form $A={X=x}$ then the equation above holds since
$$
E[f(X,Y) 1_A]=E[f(X,Y) 1_{{X=x}}]=E[f(x,Y) 1_{{X=x}}]=E[f(x,Y)] E[1_{{X=x}}]=g(x)E[1_{{X=x}}]=E[g(x)1_{{X=x}}]=E[g(X)1_{{X=x}}]
$$

where I used the independence of $X$ and $Y$ and the properties of expectation. How can I extend this to all sets in $sigma(X)$ if $X$ we discrete taking countably many values this would work but how can I make this argument work in the general case. Even hints would be highly appreciated or a nudge in the right direction










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    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    Let $X,Y$ be independent and let $f$ be Borel such that $f(X,Y) in L^1(Omega,mathcal{A},P)$. Moreover let
    $$
    g(x)=E[f(x,Y)] text{ if } vert E[f(x,Y)]vert <infty text{ and } 0 text{ otherwise}
    $$

    Then show that $g$ is Borel on $mathbb{R}$ and that
    $$
    E[f(X,Y)mid X]=g(X)
    $$



    My attempt
    1. I am not sure how to go about showing the Borel measurability of $g$ so a hint here would be highly appreciated




    1. In order to show that $E[f(X,Y)mid X]=g(X)$ we need to show that g(X) is $sigma(X)$ measurable which is the case once part 1)(Borel measurability of $g$) is proved.


    And we must also show that for all $A in sigma(X)$ we have
    begin{equation} label{1}
    E[f(X,Y) 1_A]=E[g(X) 1_A]
    end{equation}

    Now I can show that if $A$ is of the form $A={X=x}$ then the equation above holds since
    $$
    E[f(X,Y) 1_A]=E[f(X,Y) 1_{{X=x}}]=E[f(x,Y) 1_{{X=x}}]=E[f(x,Y)] E[1_{{X=x}}]=g(x)E[1_{{X=x}}]=E[g(x)1_{{X=x}}]=E[g(X)1_{{X=x}}]
    $$

    where I used the independence of $X$ and $Y$ and the properties of expectation. How can I extend this to all sets in $sigma(X)$ if $X$ we discrete taking countably many values this would work but how can I make this argument work in the general case. Even hints would be highly appreciated or a nudge in the right direction










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $X,Y$ be independent and let $f$ be Borel such that $f(X,Y) in L^1(Omega,mathcal{A},P)$. Moreover let
      $$
      g(x)=E[f(x,Y)] text{ if } vert E[f(x,Y)]vert <infty text{ and } 0 text{ otherwise}
      $$

      Then show that $g$ is Borel on $mathbb{R}$ and that
      $$
      E[f(X,Y)mid X]=g(X)
      $$



      My attempt
      1. I am not sure how to go about showing the Borel measurability of $g$ so a hint here would be highly appreciated




      1. In order to show that $E[f(X,Y)mid X]=g(X)$ we need to show that g(X) is $sigma(X)$ measurable which is the case once part 1)(Borel measurability of $g$) is proved.


      And we must also show that for all $A in sigma(X)$ we have
      begin{equation} label{1}
      E[f(X,Y) 1_A]=E[g(X) 1_A]
      end{equation}

      Now I can show that if $A$ is of the form $A={X=x}$ then the equation above holds since
      $$
      E[f(X,Y) 1_A]=E[f(X,Y) 1_{{X=x}}]=E[f(x,Y) 1_{{X=x}}]=E[f(x,Y)] E[1_{{X=x}}]=g(x)E[1_{{X=x}}]=E[g(x)1_{{X=x}}]=E[g(X)1_{{X=x}}]
      $$

      where I used the independence of $X$ and $Y$ and the properties of expectation. How can I extend this to all sets in $sigma(X)$ if $X$ we discrete taking countably many values this would work but how can I make this argument work in the general case. Even hints would be highly appreciated or a nudge in the right direction










      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $X,Y$ be independent and let $f$ be Borel such that $f(X,Y) in L^1(Omega,mathcal{A},P)$. Moreover let
      $$
      g(x)=E[f(x,Y)] text{ if } vert E[f(x,Y)]vert <infty text{ and } 0 text{ otherwise}
      $$

      Then show that $g$ is Borel on $mathbb{R}$ and that
      $$
      E[f(X,Y)mid X]=g(X)
      $$



      My attempt
      1. I am not sure how to go about showing the Borel measurability of $g$ so a hint here would be highly appreciated




      1. In order to show that $E[f(X,Y)mid X]=g(X)$ we need to show that g(X) is $sigma(X)$ measurable which is the case once part 1)(Borel measurability of $g$) is proved.


      And we must also show that for all $A in sigma(X)$ we have
      begin{equation} label{1}
      E[f(X,Y) 1_A]=E[g(X) 1_A]
      end{equation}

      Now I can show that if $A$ is of the form $A={X=x}$ then the equation above holds since
      $$
      E[f(X,Y) 1_A]=E[f(X,Y) 1_{{X=x}}]=E[f(x,Y) 1_{{X=x}}]=E[f(x,Y)] E[1_{{X=x}}]=g(x)E[1_{{X=x}}]=E[g(x)1_{{X=x}}]=E[g(X)1_{{X=x}}]
      $$

      where I used the independence of $X$ and $Y$ and the properties of expectation. How can I extend this to all sets in $sigma(X)$ if $X$ we discrete taking countably many values this would work but how can I make this argument work in the general case. Even hints would be highly appreciated or a nudge in the right direction







      probability-theory conditional-expectation






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      asked Dec 5 at 12:32









      user3503589

      1,1961721




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          1 Answer
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          Second part something like:$$mathbb Ef(X,Y)mathbf1_{{Xin B}}=intint f(x,y)mathbf1_B(x);dF_Y(y)dF_X(x)=intmathbf1_B(x)int f(x,y);dF_Y(y)dF_X(x)=$$$$intmathbf1_B(x) g(x)dF_X(x)=mathbb Eg(X)mathbf1_{{Xin B}}$$where the first equality is based on independence.



          What we use here too is that $sigma(X)={{Xin B}mid Binmathcal B(mathbb R)}$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















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            1 Answer
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            active

            oldest

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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted










            Second part something like:$$mathbb Ef(X,Y)mathbf1_{{Xin B}}=intint f(x,y)mathbf1_B(x);dF_Y(y)dF_X(x)=intmathbf1_B(x)int f(x,y);dF_Y(y)dF_X(x)=$$$$intmathbf1_B(x) g(x)dF_X(x)=mathbb Eg(X)mathbf1_{{Xin B}}$$where the first equality is based on independence.



            What we use here too is that $sigma(X)={{Xin B}mid Binmathcal B(mathbb R)}$






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              1
              down vote



              accepted










              Second part something like:$$mathbb Ef(X,Y)mathbf1_{{Xin B}}=intint f(x,y)mathbf1_B(x);dF_Y(y)dF_X(x)=intmathbf1_B(x)int f(x,y);dF_Y(y)dF_X(x)=$$$$intmathbf1_B(x) g(x)dF_X(x)=mathbb Eg(X)mathbf1_{{Xin B}}$$where the first equality is based on independence.



              What we use here too is that $sigma(X)={{Xin B}mid Binmathcal B(mathbb R)}$






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted






                Second part something like:$$mathbb Ef(X,Y)mathbf1_{{Xin B}}=intint f(x,y)mathbf1_B(x);dF_Y(y)dF_X(x)=intmathbf1_B(x)int f(x,y);dF_Y(y)dF_X(x)=$$$$intmathbf1_B(x) g(x)dF_X(x)=mathbb Eg(X)mathbf1_{{Xin B}}$$where the first equality is based on independence.



                What we use here too is that $sigma(X)={{Xin B}mid Binmathcal B(mathbb R)}$






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Second part something like:$$mathbb Ef(X,Y)mathbf1_{{Xin B}}=intint f(x,y)mathbf1_B(x);dF_Y(y)dF_X(x)=intmathbf1_B(x)int f(x,y);dF_Y(y)dF_X(x)=$$$$intmathbf1_B(x) g(x)dF_X(x)=mathbb Eg(X)mathbf1_{{Xin B}}$$where the first equality is based on independence.



                What we use here too is that $sigma(X)={{Xin B}mid Binmathcal B(mathbb R)}$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 5 at 13:36









                drhab

                96.2k543126




                96.2k543126






























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