How can I show the monotincity of $frac{x}{1+|x|}$ without differential calculus?











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I am not able to work out this exercise because I am not sure of the behavior of Absolute value for monotony.










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  • Discuss by case $x geqslant 0$ and $x <0$. The monotonicity could be shown by directly check the definition.
    – xbh
    Dec 3 at 13:17















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I am not able to work out this exercise because I am not sure of the behavior of Absolute value for monotony.










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  • Discuss by case $x geqslant 0$ and $x <0$. The monotonicity could be shown by directly check the definition.
    – xbh
    Dec 3 at 13:17













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I am not able to work out this exercise because I am not sure of the behavior of Absolute value for monotony.










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I am not able to work out this exercise because I am not sure of the behavior of Absolute value for monotony.







calculus functions continuity






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edited 2 days ago









greedoid

36.4k114591




36.4k114591










asked Dec 3 at 13:11









Andreas Leto

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  • Discuss by case $x geqslant 0$ and $x <0$. The monotonicity could be shown by directly check the definition.
    – xbh
    Dec 3 at 13:17


















  • Discuss by case $x geqslant 0$ and $x <0$. The monotonicity could be shown by directly check the definition.
    – xbh
    Dec 3 at 13:17
















Discuss by case $x geqslant 0$ and $x <0$. The monotonicity could be shown by directly check the definition.
– xbh
Dec 3 at 13:17




Discuss by case $x geqslant 0$ and $x <0$. The monotonicity could be shown by directly check the definition.
– xbh
Dec 3 at 13:17










5 Answers
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8
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Let's prove (first) it is injective: $$f(a) = f(b)implies {aover 1+|a|} = {bover 1+|b|}$$
so $a$ and $b$ must have equaly sign. Say both are positive, then $${aover 1+a} = {bover 1+b} implies a=b$$
and the same if both are negative. So $f$ is injective and it is continuous so it must be monotonic.






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  • That's my favourite answer, +1.
    – Michael Hoppe
    Dec 3 at 15:56


















up vote
3
down vote













Note that this is an odd function, so increasing for positive $x$ implies increasing for negative $x$.



Then you only have to think about $frac{x}{1+x}=1-frac{1}{1+x}$ for positive $x$.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    Hint:




    1. A function $f$ is monotonous if, for $x_1<x_2$, the expression $f(x_1)-f(x_2)$ always has the same sign.

    2. Separate three cases when calculating $f(x_1)-f(x_2)$: one when $x_1,x_2$ are both non-negative, one where they are both negative, and one where one is non-negative and one is negative






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Hint:




      • If $x >0$, then we have $$frac{x}{1+|x|}=frac{1}{frac1x+1}$$






      share|cite|improve this answer




























        up vote
        0
        down vote













        Since $f(1)>f(0)$ we can guess that $f(x)$ is strictly increasing, then we need to show that $forall a>0$



        $$frac{x+a}{1+|x+a|}>frac{x}{1+|x|} iff (1+|x|)(x+a)>x(1+|x+a|) $$$$iff a+a|x|+x|x|-x|x+a|>0$$



        then consider the cases





        • $xge 0 implies |x|=x $ $$implies a+a|x|+x|x|-x|x+a|=a+ax+x^2-x^2-ax=a>0$$


        • $x <0implies |x|=-x$ $$implies a+a|x|+x|x|-x|x+a|=a-ax-x^2+x^2+ax=a>0$$






        share|cite|improve this answer























        • Why would $f(x+1)>f(x)$ imply that $f$ is strictly increasing?
          – Shubham Johri
          Dec 3 at 13:31










        • @ShubhamJohri Yes sorry, I don't know why I've used one, I fix that . Thanks
          – gimusi
          Dec 3 at 13:32











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        5 Answers
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        5 Answers
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        up vote
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        Let's prove (first) it is injective: $$f(a) = f(b)implies {aover 1+|a|} = {bover 1+|b|}$$
        so $a$ and $b$ must have equaly sign. Say both are positive, then $${aover 1+a} = {bover 1+b} implies a=b$$
        and the same if both are negative. So $f$ is injective and it is continuous so it must be monotonic.






        share|cite|improve this answer























        • That's my favourite answer, +1.
          – Michael Hoppe
          Dec 3 at 15:56















        up vote
        8
        down vote













        Let's prove (first) it is injective: $$f(a) = f(b)implies {aover 1+|a|} = {bover 1+|b|}$$
        so $a$ and $b$ must have equaly sign. Say both are positive, then $${aover 1+a} = {bover 1+b} implies a=b$$
        and the same if both are negative. So $f$ is injective and it is continuous so it must be monotonic.






        share|cite|improve this answer























        • That's my favourite answer, +1.
          – Michael Hoppe
          Dec 3 at 15:56













        up vote
        8
        down vote










        up vote
        8
        down vote









        Let's prove (first) it is injective: $$f(a) = f(b)implies {aover 1+|a|} = {bover 1+|b|}$$
        so $a$ and $b$ must have equaly sign. Say both are positive, then $${aover 1+a} = {bover 1+b} implies a=b$$
        and the same if both are negative. So $f$ is injective and it is continuous so it must be monotonic.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        Let's prove (first) it is injective: $$f(a) = f(b)implies {aover 1+|a|} = {bover 1+|b|}$$
        so $a$ and $b$ must have equaly sign. Say both are positive, then $${aover 1+a} = {bover 1+b} implies a=b$$
        and the same if both are negative. So $f$ is injective and it is continuous so it must be monotonic.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Dec 3 at 13:38

























        answered Dec 3 at 13:22









        greedoid

        36.4k114591




        36.4k114591












        • That's my favourite answer, +1.
          – Michael Hoppe
          Dec 3 at 15:56


















        • That's my favourite answer, +1.
          – Michael Hoppe
          Dec 3 at 15:56
















        That's my favourite answer, +1.
        – Michael Hoppe
        Dec 3 at 15:56




        That's my favourite answer, +1.
        – Michael Hoppe
        Dec 3 at 15:56










        up vote
        3
        down vote













        Note that this is an odd function, so increasing for positive $x$ implies increasing for negative $x$.



        Then you only have to think about $frac{x}{1+x}=1-frac{1}{1+x}$ for positive $x$.






        share|cite|improve this answer

























          up vote
          3
          down vote













          Note that this is an odd function, so increasing for positive $x$ implies increasing for negative $x$.



          Then you only have to think about $frac{x}{1+x}=1-frac{1}{1+x}$ for positive $x$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























            up vote
            3
            down vote










            up vote
            3
            down vote









            Note that this is an odd function, so increasing for positive $x$ implies increasing for negative $x$.



            Then you only have to think about $frac{x}{1+x}=1-frac{1}{1+x}$ for positive $x$.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Note that this is an odd function, so increasing for positive $x$ implies increasing for negative $x$.



            Then you only have to think about $frac{x}{1+x}=1-frac{1}{1+x}$ for positive $x$.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Dec 3 at 13:17









            paw88789

            28.9k12350




            28.9k12350






















                up vote
                2
                down vote













                Hint:




                1. A function $f$ is monotonous if, for $x_1<x_2$, the expression $f(x_1)-f(x_2)$ always has the same sign.

                2. Separate three cases when calculating $f(x_1)-f(x_2)$: one when $x_1,x_2$ are both non-negative, one where they are both negative, and one where one is non-negative and one is negative






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote













                  Hint:




                  1. A function $f$ is monotonous if, for $x_1<x_2$, the expression $f(x_1)-f(x_2)$ always has the same sign.

                  2. Separate three cases when calculating $f(x_1)-f(x_2)$: one when $x_1,x_2$ are both non-negative, one where they are both negative, and one where one is non-negative and one is negative






                  share|cite|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote









                    Hint:




                    1. A function $f$ is monotonous if, for $x_1<x_2$, the expression $f(x_1)-f(x_2)$ always has the same sign.

                    2. Separate three cases when calculating $f(x_1)-f(x_2)$: one when $x_1,x_2$ are both non-negative, one where they are both negative, and one where one is non-negative and one is negative






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    Hint:




                    1. A function $f$ is monotonous if, for $x_1<x_2$, the expression $f(x_1)-f(x_2)$ always has the same sign.

                    2. Separate three cases when calculating $f(x_1)-f(x_2)$: one when $x_1,x_2$ are both non-negative, one where they are both negative, and one where one is non-negative and one is negative







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Dec 3 at 13:17









                    5xum

                    89.1k393160




                    89.1k393160






















                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        Hint:




                        • If $x >0$, then we have $$frac{x}{1+|x|}=frac{1}{frac1x+1}$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote













                          Hint:




                          • If $x >0$, then we have $$frac{x}{1+|x|}=frac{1}{frac1x+1}$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote









                            Hint:




                            • If $x >0$, then we have $$frac{x}{1+|x|}=frac{1}{frac1x+1}$$






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            Hint:




                            • If $x >0$, then we have $$frac{x}{1+|x|}=frac{1}{frac1x+1}$$







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Dec 3 at 13:16









                            Siong Thye Goh

                            97k1462116




                            97k1462116






















                                up vote
                                0
                                down vote













                                Since $f(1)>f(0)$ we can guess that $f(x)$ is strictly increasing, then we need to show that $forall a>0$



                                $$frac{x+a}{1+|x+a|}>frac{x}{1+|x|} iff (1+|x|)(x+a)>x(1+|x+a|) $$$$iff a+a|x|+x|x|-x|x+a|>0$$



                                then consider the cases





                                • $xge 0 implies |x|=x $ $$implies a+a|x|+x|x|-x|x+a|=a+ax+x^2-x^2-ax=a>0$$


                                • $x <0implies |x|=-x$ $$implies a+a|x|+x|x|-x|x+a|=a-ax-x^2+x^2+ax=a>0$$






                                share|cite|improve this answer























                                • Why would $f(x+1)>f(x)$ imply that $f$ is strictly increasing?
                                  – Shubham Johri
                                  Dec 3 at 13:31










                                • @ShubhamJohri Yes sorry, I don't know why I've used one, I fix that . Thanks
                                  – gimusi
                                  Dec 3 at 13:32















                                up vote
                                0
                                down vote













                                Since $f(1)>f(0)$ we can guess that $f(x)$ is strictly increasing, then we need to show that $forall a>0$



                                $$frac{x+a}{1+|x+a|}>frac{x}{1+|x|} iff (1+|x|)(x+a)>x(1+|x+a|) $$$$iff a+a|x|+x|x|-x|x+a|>0$$



                                then consider the cases





                                • $xge 0 implies |x|=x $ $$implies a+a|x|+x|x|-x|x+a|=a+ax+x^2-x^2-ax=a>0$$


                                • $x <0implies |x|=-x$ $$implies a+a|x|+x|x|-x|x+a|=a-ax-x^2+x^2+ax=a>0$$






                                share|cite|improve this answer























                                • Why would $f(x+1)>f(x)$ imply that $f$ is strictly increasing?
                                  – Shubham Johri
                                  Dec 3 at 13:31










                                • @ShubhamJohri Yes sorry, I don't know why I've used one, I fix that . Thanks
                                  – gimusi
                                  Dec 3 at 13:32













                                up vote
                                0
                                down vote










                                up vote
                                0
                                down vote









                                Since $f(1)>f(0)$ we can guess that $f(x)$ is strictly increasing, then we need to show that $forall a>0$



                                $$frac{x+a}{1+|x+a|}>frac{x}{1+|x|} iff (1+|x|)(x+a)>x(1+|x+a|) $$$$iff a+a|x|+x|x|-x|x+a|>0$$



                                then consider the cases





                                • $xge 0 implies |x|=x $ $$implies a+a|x|+x|x|-x|x+a|=a+ax+x^2-x^2-ax=a>0$$


                                • $x <0implies |x|=-x$ $$implies a+a|x|+x|x|-x|x+a|=a-ax-x^2+x^2+ax=a>0$$






                                share|cite|improve this answer














                                Since $f(1)>f(0)$ we can guess that $f(x)$ is strictly increasing, then we need to show that $forall a>0$



                                $$frac{x+a}{1+|x+a|}>frac{x}{1+|x|} iff (1+|x|)(x+a)>x(1+|x+a|) $$$$iff a+a|x|+x|x|-x|x+a|>0$$



                                then consider the cases





                                • $xge 0 implies |x|=x $ $$implies a+a|x|+x|x|-x|x+a|=a+ax+x^2-x^2-ax=a>0$$


                                • $x <0implies |x|=-x$ $$implies a+a|x|+x|x|-x|x+a|=a-ax-x^2+x^2+ax=a>0$$







                                share|cite|improve this answer














                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                share|cite|improve this answer








                                edited Dec 3 at 13:38

























                                answered Dec 3 at 13:18









                                gimusi

                                91.2k74495




                                91.2k74495












                                • Why would $f(x+1)>f(x)$ imply that $f$ is strictly increasing?
                                  – Shubham Johri
                                  Dec 3 at 13:31










                                • @ShubhamJohri Yes sorry, I don't know why I've used one, I fix that . Thanks
                                  – gimusi
                                  Dec 3 at 13:32


















                                • Why would $f(x+1)>f(x)$ imply that $f$ is strictly increasing?
                                  – Shubham Johri
                                  Dec 3 at 13:31










                                • @ShubhamJohri Yes sorry, I don't know why I've used one, I fix that . Thanks
                                  – gimusi
                                  Dec 3 at 13:32
















                                Why would $f(x+1)>f(x)$ imply that $f$ is strictly increasing?
                                – Shubham Johri
                                Dec 3 at 13:31




                                Why would $f(x+1)>f(x)$ imply that $f$ is strictly increasing?
                                – Shubham Johri
                                Dec 3 at 13:31












                                @ShubhamJohri Yes sorry, I don't know why I've used one, I fix that . Thanks
                                – gimusi
                                Dec 3 at 13:32




                                @ShubhamJohri Yes sorry, I don't know why I've used one, I fix that . Thanks
                                – gimusi
                                Dec 3 at 13:32


















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