Show that $q$ must divide one of the prime integer factors of $N(q)$.











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The following is from Aluffi's Algebra
enter image description here



Why this is true? :




.. since q is prime in Z[i] ⊇ Z, q must divide one of
the prime integer factors of N(q).











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  • 1




    Write $N(q) = p_1 times cdots times p_n$ a product of $mathbb Z$-primes. Now, in $mathbb Z[i]$, $q mid p_1 times cdots times p_n$. By definition of primality, there is an $m$ such that $q mid p_m$.
    – Mees de Vries
    Dec 3 at 13:12










  • @MeesdeVries, wow, that simple! thanks :)
    – 72D
    Dec 3 at 13:17















up vote
3
down vote

favorite












The following is from Aluffi's Algebra
enter image description here



Why this is true? :




.. since q is prime in Z[i] ⊇ Z, q must divide one of
the prime integer factors of N(q).











share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Write $N(q) = p_1 times cdots times p_n$ a product of $mathbb Z$-primes. Now, in $mathbb Z[i]$, $q mid p_1 times cdots times p_n$. By definition of primality, there is an $m$ such that $q mid p_m$.
    – Mees de Vries
    Dec 3 at 13:12










  • @MeesdeVries, wow, that simple! thanks :)
    – 72D
    Dec 3 at 13:17













up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











The following is from Aluffi's Algebra
enter image description here



Why this is true? :




.. since q is prime in Z[i] ⊇ Z, q must divide one of
the prime integer factors of N(q).











share|cite|improve this question













The following is from Aluffi's Algebra
enter image description here



Why this is true? :




.. since q is prime in Z[i] ⊇ Z, q must divide one of
the prime integer factors of N(q).








abstract-algebra number-theory algebraic-number-theory gaussian-integral






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asked Dec 3 at 13:07









72D

52416




52416








  • 1




    Write $N(q) = p_1 times cdots times p_n$ a product of $mathbb Z$-primes. Now, in $mathbb Z[i]$, $q mid p_1 times cdots times p_n$. By definition of primality, there is an $m$ such that $q mid p_m$.
    – Mees de Vries
    Dec 3 at 13:12










  • @MeesdeVries, wow, that simple! thanks :)
    – 72D
    Dec 3 at 13:17














  • 1




    Write $N(q) = p_1 times cdots times p_n$ a product of $mathbb Z$-primes. Now, in $mathbb Z[i]$, $q mid p_1 times cdots times p_n$. By definition of primality, there is an $m$ such that $q mid p_m$.
    – Mees de Vries
    Dec 3 at 13:12










  • @MeesdeVries, wow, that simple! thanks :)
    – 72D
    Dec 3 at 13:17








1




1




Write $N(q) = p_1 times cdots times p_n$ a product of $mathbb Z$-primes. Now, in $mathbb Z[i]$, $q mid p_1 times cdots times p_n$. By definition of primality, there is an $m$ such that $q mid p_m$.
– Mees de Vries
Dec 3 at 13:12




Write $N(q) = p_1 times cdots times p_n$ a product of $mathbb Z$-primes. Now, in $mathbb Z[i]$, $q mid p_1 times cdots times p_n$. By definition of primality, there is an $m$ such that $q mid p_m$.
– Mees de Vries
Dec 3 at 13:12












@MeesdeVries, wow, that simple! thanks :)
– 72D
Dec 3 at 13:17




@MeesdeVries, wow, that simple! thanks :)
– 72D
Dec 3 at 13:17










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This might make a lot more sense to you if you look at specific numbers. I suggest $2$ and $3$.



Although $2$ is prime in $mathbb{Z}$, it's not prime in $mathbb{Z}[i]$, since $(1 - i)(1 + i) = 2$. So $N(2) = 4$, no surprise there. We also see that $N(1 - i) = 2$, and $N(1 + i) = 2$ as well. These facts may not seem obvious but they are easily verified.



And these facts mesh perfectly well with the multiplicative property of the norm function. If $ab = 2$, then $N(a)$ can only be $1$, $2$ or $4$, and the choice of $b$ follows immediately.



Compare $3$, which is indeed prime in both $mathbb{Z}$ and $mathbb{Z}[i]$. Its norm in the latter is still its square, and since it neither ramifies nor splits in this domain, it likewise follows that $N(z) = 3$ is impossible for $z in mathbb{Z}[i]$.






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    up vote
    1
    down vote













    This might make a lot more sense to you if you look at specific numbers. I suggest $2$ and $3$.



    Although $2$ is prime in $mathbb{Z}$, it's not prime in $mathbb{Z}[i]$, since $(1 - i)(1 + i) = 2$. So $N(2) = 4$, no surprise there. We also see that $N(1 - i) = 2$, and $N(1 + i) = 2$ as well. These facts may not seem obvious but they are easily verified.



    And these facts mesh perfectly well with the multiplicative property of the norm function. If $ab = 2$, then $N(a)$ can only be $1$, $2$ or $4$, and the choice of $b$ follows immediately.



    Compare $3$, which is indeed prime in both $mathbb{Z}$ and $mathbb{Z}[i]$. Its norm in the latter is still its square, and since it neither ramifies nor splits in this domain, it likewise follows that $N(z) = 3$ is impossible for $z in mathbb{Z}[i]$.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      This might make a lot more sense to you if you look at specific numbers. I suggest $2$ and $3$.



      Although $2$ is prime in $mathbb{Z}$, it's not prime in $mathbb{Z}[i]$, since $(1 - i)(1 + i) = 2$. So $N(2) = 4$, no surprise there. We also see that $N(1 - i) = 2$, and $N(1 + i) = 2$ as well. These facts may not seem obvious but they are easily verified.



      And these facts mesh perfectly well with the multiplicative property of the norm function. If $ab = 2$, then $N(a)$ can only be $1$, $2$ or $4$, and the choice of $b$ follows immediately.



      Compare $3$, which is indeed prime in both $mathbb{Z}$ and $mathbb{Z}[i]$. Its norm in the latter is still its square, and since it neither ramifies nor splits in this domain, it likewise follows that $N(z) = 3$ is impossible for $z in mathbb{Z}[i]$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        This might make a lot more sense to you if you look at specific numbers. I suggest $2$ and $3$.



        Although $2$ is prime in $mathbb{Z}$, it's not prime in $mathbb{Z}[i]$, since $(1 - i)(1 + i) = 2$. So $N(2) = 4$, no surprise there. We also see that $N(1 - i) = 2$, and $N(1 + i) = 2$ as well. These facts may not seem obvious but they are easily verified.



        And these facts mesh perfectly well with the multiplicative property of the norm function. If $ab = 2$, then $N(a)$ can only be $1$, $2$ or $4$, and the choice of $b$ follows immediately.



        Compare $3$, which is indeed prime in both $mathbb{Z}$ and $mathbb{Z}[i]$. Its norm in the latter is still its square, and since it neither ramifies nor splits in this domain, it likewise follows that $N(z) = 3$ is impossible for $z in mathbb{Z}[i]$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        This might make a lot more sense to you if you look at specific numbers. I suggest $2$ and $3$.



        Although $2$ is prime in $mathbb{Z}$, it's not prime in $mathbb{Z}[i]$, since $(1 - i)(1 + i) = 2$. So $N(2) = 4$, no surprise there. We also see that $N(1 - i) = 2$, and $N(1 + i) = 2$ as well. These facts may not seem obvious but they are easily verified.



        And these facts mesh perfectly well with the multiplicative property of the norm function. If $ab = 2$, then $N(a)$ can only be $1$, $2$ or $4$, and the choice of $b$ follows immediately.



        Compare $3$, which is indeed prime in both $mathbb{Z}$ and $mathbb{Z}[i]$. Its norm in the latter is still its square, and since it neither ramifies nor splits in this domain, it likewise follows that $N(z) = 3$ is impossible for $z in mathbb{Z}[i]$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 7 at 0:10









        Mr. Brooks

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