Why $mathbb P(X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t)=1$ if $mathbb P(X_t=Y_t)=1$ for all $t$?
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
Let $X_t$ and $Y_t$ two continuous stochastic process on $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ s.t. $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$. Why $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=1$ ?
The solution goes as : We have that $X_r=Y_r$ a.s. for all $rinmathbb Q$. Therefore, $mathbb P{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|>0}=0$. The claim follow.
I really don't understand the argument. And for me $mathbb P(X_t=Y_t)=1$ for all $t$ is really the same as $mathbb P(X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t)=1$. I don't see the difference.
probability measure-theory
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
Let $X_t$ and $Y_t$ two continuous stochastic process on $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ s.t. $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$. Why $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=1$ ?
The solution goes as : We have that $X_r=Y_r$ a.s. for all $rinmathbb Q$. Therefore, $mathbb P{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|>0}=0$. The claim follow.
I really don't understand the argument. And for me $mathbb P(X_t=Y_t)=1$ for all $t$ is really the same as $mathbb P(X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t)=1$. I don't see the difference.
probability measure-theory
First one is for each $t$, ${ omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$, second one is $bigcap_{tin mathbb R} { omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$
– Calvin Khor
Dec 3 at 13:23
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
Let $X_t$ and $Y_t$ two continuous stochastic process on $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ s.t. $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$. Why $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=1$ ?
The solution goes as : We have that $X_r=Y_r$ a.s. for all $rinmathbb Q$. Therefore, $mathbb P{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|>0}=0$. The claim follow.
I really don't understand the argument. And for me $mathbb P(X_t=Y_t)=1$ for all $t$ is really the same as $mathbb P(X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t)=1$. I don't see the difference.
probability measure-theory
Let $X_t$ and $Y_t$ two continuous stochastic process on $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ s.t. $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$. Why $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=1$ ?
The solution goes as : We have that $X_r=Y_r$ a.s. for all $rinmathbb Q$. Therefore, $mathbb P{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|>0}=0$. The claim follow.
I really don't understand the argument. And for me $mathbb P(X_t=Y_t)=1$ for all $t$ is really the same as $mathbb P(X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t)=1$. I don't see the difference.
probability measure-theory
probability measure-theory
asked Dec 3 at 13:12
NewMath
936
936
First one is for each $t$, ${ omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$, second one is $bigcap_{tin mathbb R} { omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$
– Calvin Khor
Dec 3 at 13:23
add a comment |
First one is for each $t$, ${ omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$, second one is $bigcap_{tin mathbb R} { omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$
– Calvin Khor
Dec 3 at 13:23
First one is for each $t$, ${ omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$, second one is $bigcap_{tin mathbb R} { omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$
– Calvin Khor
Dec 3 at 13:23
First one is for each $t$, ${ omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$, second one is $bigcap_{tin mathbb R} { omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$
– Calvin Khor
Dec 3 at 13:23
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The only thing you can say for $t$ fixed is $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}leq mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}.$$
You should pay more attention to the answers I gave you here. It's the same problem here.
What you must show is that there is $N$ with $mathbb P(N)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin Omega $ and all $t$, $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega ).$
If $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$, then $X_q=Y_q$ a.s. for all $qinmathbb Q$. Therefore, for all $qinmathbb Q$, there is $N_q$ with $mathbb P(N_q)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin N_q$ $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.
Set $N=bigcup_{qinmathbb Q}N_q$. It's s.t. $mathbb P(N)=0$ and for all $omega notin N$ and all $qinmathbb Q$, $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.
Let $tin mathbb R$ and let $(q_n)_n$ a sequence of $mathbb Q$ s.t. $q_nto t$. If $omega notin N$, then, by continuity
$$X_t=lim_{nto infty }X_{q_n}=lim_{nto infty }Y_{q_n}=Y_t.$$
Therefore $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all $t$}}=1$.
For a counter example for the equality : Let $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure on $Omega =[0,1]$. Let $tin [0,1]$, $X_t=0$ for all $omega $ and $Y_t(omega )=boldsymbol 1_{{t}}(omega )$.
Then $mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}=1$ for all $t$, but $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=0,$$
since there is no $omega $ s.t. $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega )$ for all $t$ because for $omega in Omega $ fixed, when $t=omega $ then $X_t(omega )=0$ but $Y_t(omega )=1$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Since $X_t, Y_t$ are continuous, we have of course
$$
mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
=
mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
=
mathbb Pleft(bigcap_{sinmathbb Q}{|X_s-Y_s|=0}right)
$$
a countable intersection of measurable sets of measure $1$.
Actually, more is true, namely that, almost surely, $$sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|$$
– Did
Dec 3 at 14:06
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The only thing you can say for $t$ fixed is $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}leq mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}.$$
You should pay more attention to the answers I gave you here. It's the same problem here.
What you must show is that there is $N$ with $mathbb P(N)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin Omega $ and all $t$, $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega ).$
If $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$, then $X_q=Y_q$ a.s. for all $qinmathbb Q$. Therefore, for all $qinmathbb Q$, there is $N_q$ with $mathbb P(N_q)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin N_q$ $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.
Set $N=bigcup_{qinmathbb Q}N_q$. It's s.t. $mathbb P(N)=0$ and for all $omega notin N$ and all $qinmathbb Q$, $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.
Let $tin mathbb R$ and let $(q_n)_n$ a sequence of $mathbb Q$ s.t. $q_nto t$. If $omega notin N$, then, by continuity
$$X_t=lim_{nto infty }X_{q_n}=lim_{nto infty }Y_{q_n}=Y_t.$$
Therefore $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all $t$}}=1$.
For a counter example for the equality : Let $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure on $Omega =[0,1]$. Let $tin [0,1]$, $X_t=0$ for all $omega $ and $Y_t(omega )=boldsymbol 1_{{t}}(omega )$.
Then $mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}=1$ for all $t$, but $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=0,$$
since there is no $omega $ s.t. $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega )$ for all $t$ because for $omega in Omega $ fixed, when $t=omega $ then $X_t(omega )=0$ but $Y_t(omega )=1$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The only thing you can say for $t$ fixed is $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}leq mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}.$$
You should pay more attention to the answers I gave you here. It's the same problem here.
What you must show is that there is $N$ with $mathbb P(N)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin Omega $ and all $t$, $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega ).$
If $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$, then $X_q=Y_q$ a.s. for all $qinmathbb Q$. Therefore, for all $qinmathbb Q$, there is $N_q$ with $mathbb P(N_q)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin N_q$ $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.
Set $N=bigcup_{qinmathbb Q}N_q$. It's s.t. $mathbb P(N)=0$ and for all $omega notin N$ and all $qinmathbb Q$, $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.
Let $tin mathbb R$ and let $(q_n)_n$ a sequence of $mathbb Q$ s.t. $q_nto t$. If $omega notin N$, then, by continuity
$$X_t=lim_{nto infty }X_{q_n}=lim_{nto infty }Y_{q_n}=Y_t.$$
Therefore $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all $t$}}=1$.
For a counter example for the equality : Let $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure on $Omega =[0,1]$. Let $tin [0,1]$, $X_t=0$ for all $omega $ and $Y_t(omega )=boldsymbol 1_{{t}}(omega )$.
Then $mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}=1$ for all $t$, but $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=0,$$
since there is no $omega $ s.t. $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega )$ for all $t$ because for $omega in Omega $ fixed, when $t=omega $ then $X_t(omega )=0$ but $Y_t(omega )=1$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The only thing you can say for $t$ fixed is $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}leq mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}.$$
You should pay more attention to the answers I gave you here. It's the same problem here.
What you must show is that there is $N$ with $mathbb P(N)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin Omega $ and all $t$, $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega ).$
If $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$, then $X_q=Y_q$ a.s. for all $qinmathbb Q$. Therefore, for all $qinmathbb Q$, there is $N_q$ with $mathbb P(N_q)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin N_q$ $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.
Set $N=bigcup_{qinmathbb Q}N_q$. It's s.t. $mathbb P(N)=0$ and for all $omega notin N$ and all $qinmathbb Q$, $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.
Let $tin mathbb R$ and let $(q_n)_n$ a sequence of $mathbb Q$ s.t. $q_nto t$. If $omega notin N$, then, by continuity
$$X_t=lim_{nto infty }X_{q_n}=lim_{nto infty }Y_{q_n}=Y_t.$$
Therefore $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all $t$}}=1$.
For a counter example for the equality : Let $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure on $Omega =[0,1]$. Let $tin [0,1]$, $X_t=0$ for all $omega $ and $Y_t(omega )=boldsymbol 1_{{t}}(omega )$.
Then $mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}=1$ for all $t$, but $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=0,$$
since there is no $omega $ s.t. $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega )$ for all $t$ because for $omega in Omega $ fixed, when $t=omega $ then $X_t(omega )=0$ but $Y_t(omega )=1$.
The only thing you can say for $t$ fixed is $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}leq mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}.$$
You should pay more attention to the answers I gave you here. It's the same problem here.
What you must show is that there is $N$ with $mathbb P(N)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin Omega $ and all $t$, $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega ).$
If $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$, then $X_q=Y_q$ a.s. for all $qinmathbb Q$. Therefore, for all $qinmathbb Q$, there is $N_q$ with $mathbb P(N_q)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin N_q$ $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.
Set $N=bigcup_{qinmathbb Q}N_q$. It's s.t. $mathbb P(N)=0$ and for all $omega notin N$ and all $qinmathbb Q$, $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.
Let $tin mathbb R$ and let $(q_n)_n$ a sequence of $mathbb Q$ s.t. $q_nto t$. If $omega notin N$, then, by continuity
$$X_t=lim_{nto infty }X_{q_n}=lim_{nto infty }Y_{q_n}=Y_t.$$
Therefore $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all $t$}}=1$.
For a counter example for the equality : Let $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure on $Omega =[0,1]$. Let $tin [0,1]$, $X_t=0$ for all $omega $ and $Y_t(omega )=boldsymbol 1_{{t}}(omega )$.
Then $mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}=1$ for all $t$, but $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=0,$$
since there is no $omega $ s.t. $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega )$ for all $t$ because for $omega in Omega $ fixed, when $t=omega $ then $X_t(omega )=0$ but $Y_t(omega )=1$.
edited Dec 3 at 13:31
answered Dec 3 at 13:24
Surb
37.2k94375
37.2k94375
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Since $X_t, Y_t$ are continuous, we have of course
$$
mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
=
mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
=
mathbb Pleft(bigcap_{sinmathbb Q}{|X_s-Y_s|=0}right)
$$
a countable intersection of measurable sets of measure $1$.
Actually, more is true, namely that, almost surely, $$sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|$$
– Did
Dec 3 at 14:06
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Since $X_t, Y_t$ are continuous, we have of course
$$
mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
=
mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
=
mathbb Pleft(bigcap_{sinmathbb Q}{|X_s-Y_s|=0}right)
$$
a countable intersection of measurable sets of measure $1$.
Actually, more is true, namely that, almost surely, $$sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|$$
– Did
Dec 3 at 14:06
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Since $X_t, Y_t$ are continuous, we have of course
$$
mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
=
mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
=
mathbb Pleft(bigcap_{sinmathbb Q}{|X_s-Y_s|=0}right)
$$
a countable intersection of measurable sets of measure $1$.
Since $X_t, Y_t$ are continuous, we have of course
$$
mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
=
mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
=
mathbb Pleft(bigcap_{sinmathbb Q}{|X_s-Y_s|=0}right)
$$
a countable intersection of measurable sets of measure $1$.
edited Dec 3 at 14:03
answered Dec 3 at 13:57
GEdgar
61.3k267167
61.3k267167
Actually, more is true, namely that, almost surely, $$sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|$$
– Did
Dec 3 at 14:06
add a comment |
Actually, more is true, namely that, almost surely, $$sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|$$
– Did
Dec 3 at 14:06
Actually, more is true, namely that, almost surely, $$sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|$$
– Did
Dec 3 at 14:06
Actually, more is true, namely that, almost surely, $$sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|$$
– Did
Dec 3 at 14:06
add a comment |
Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.
Please pay close attention to the following guidance:
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3024046%2fwhy-mathbb-px-t-y-t-text-for-all-t-1-if-mathbb-px-t-y-t-1-for-all-t%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
First one is for each $t$, ${ omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$, second one is $bigcap_{tin mathbb R} { omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$
– Calvin Khor
Dec 3 at 13:23