Why $mathbb P(X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t)=1$ if $mathbb P(X_t=Y_t)=1$ for all $t$?











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Let $X_t$ and $Y_t$ two continuous stochastic process on $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ s.t. $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$. Why $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=1$ ?



The solution goes as : We have that $X_r=Y_r$ a.s. for all $rinmathbb Q$. Therefore, $mathbb P{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|>0}=0$. The claim follow.



I really don't understand the argument. And for me $mathbb P(X_t=Y_t)=1$ for all $t$ is really the same as $mathbb P(X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t)=1$. I don't see the difference.










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  • First one is for each $t$, ${ omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$, second one is $bigcap_{tin mathbb R} { omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$
    – Calvin Khor
    Dec 3 at 13:23

















up vote
3
down vote

favorite












Let $X_t$ and $Y_t$ two continuous stochastic process on $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ s.t. $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$. Why $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=1$ ?



The solution goes as : We have that $X_r=Y_r$ a.s. for all $rinmathbb Q$. Therefore, $mathbb P{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|>0}=0$. The claim follow.



I really don't understand the argument. And for me $mathbb P(X_t=Y_t)=1$ for all $t$ is really the same as $mathbb P(X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t)=1$. I don't see the difference.










share|cite|improve this question






















  • First one is for each $t$, ${ omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$, second one is $bigcap_{tin mathbb R} { omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$
    – Calvin Khor
    Dec 3 at 13:23















up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











Let $X_t$ and $Y_t$ two continuous stochastic process on $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ s.t. $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$. Why $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=1$ ?



The solution goes as : We have that $X_r=Y_r$ a.s. for all $rinmathbb Q$. Therefore, $mathbb P{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|>0}=0$. The claim follow.



I really don't understand the argument. And for me $mathbb P(X_t=Y_t)=1$ for all $t$ is really the same as $mathbb P(X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t)=1$. I don't see the difference.










share|cite|improve this question













Let $X_t$ and $Y_t$ two continuous stochastic process on $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ s.t. $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$. Why $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=1$ ?



The solution goes as : We have that $X_r=Y_r$ a.s. for all $rinmathbb Q$. Therefore, $mathbb P{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|>0}=0$. The claim follow.



I really don't understand the argument. And for me $mathbb P(X_t=Y_t)=1$ for all $t$ is really the same as $mathbb P(X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t)=1$. I don't see the difference.







probability measure-theory






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asked Dec 3 at 13:12









NewMath

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936












  • First one is for each $t$, ${ omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$, second one is $bigcap_{tin mathbb R} { omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$
    – Calvin Khor
    Dec 3 at 13:23




















  • First one is for each $t$, ${ omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$, second one is $bigcap_{tin mathbb R} { omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$
    – Calvin Khor
    Dec 3 at 13:23


















First one is for each $t$, ${ omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$, second one is $bigcap_{tin mathbb R} { omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$
– Calvin Khor
Dec 3 at 13:23






First one is for each $t$, ${ omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$, second one is $bigcap_{tin mathbb R} { omega : X_t(omega) = Y_t(omega) }$
– Calvin Khor
Dec 3 at 13:23












2 Answers
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The only thing you can say for $t$ fixed is $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}leq mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}.$$
You should pay more attention to the answers I gave you here. It's the same problem here.



What you must show is that there is $N$ with $mathbb P(N)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin Omega $ and all $t$, $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega ).$




  • If $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$, then $X_q=Y_q$ a.s. for all $qinmathbb Q$. Therefore, for all $qinmathbb Q$, there is $N_q$ with $mathbb P(N_q)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin N_q$ $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.


  • Set $N=bigcup_{qinmathbb Q}N_q$. It's s.t. $mathbb P(N)=0$ and for all $omega notin N$ and all $qinmathbb Q$, $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.


  • Let $tin mathbb R$ and let $(q_n)_n$ a sequence of $mathbb Q$ s.t. $q_nto t$. If $omega notin N$, then, by continuity
    $$X_t=lim_{nto infty }X_{q_n}=lim_{nto infty }Y_{q_n}=Y_t.$$



Therefore $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all $t$}}=1$.





For a counter example for the equality : Let $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure on $Omega =[0,1]$. Let $tin [0,1]$, $X_t=0$ for all $omega $ and $Y_t(omega )=boldsymbol 1_{{t}}(omega )$.



Then $mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}=1$ for all $t$, but $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=0,$$
since there is no $omega $ s.t. $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega )$ for all $t$ because for $omega in Omega $ fixed, when $t=omega $ then $X_t(omega )=0$ but $Y_t(omega )=1$.






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    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Since $X_t, Y_t$ are continuous, we have of course
    $$
    mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
    =
    mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
    =
    mathbb Pleft(bigcap_{sinmathbb Q}{|X_s-Y_s|=0}right)
    $$

    a countable intersection of measurable sets of measure $1$.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • Actually, more is true, namely that, almost surely, $$sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|$$
      – Did
      Dec 3 at 14:06











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    2 Answers
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    The only thing you can say for $t$ fixed is $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}leq mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}.$$
    You should pay more attention to the answers I gave you here. It's the same problem here.



    What you must show is that there is $N$ with $mathbb P(N)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin Omega $ and all $t$, $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega ).$




    • If $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$, then $X_q=Y_q$ a.s. for all $qinmathbb Q$. Therefore, for all $qinmathbb Q$, there is $N_q$ with $mathbb P(N_q)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin N_q$ $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.


    • Set $N=bigcup_{qinmathbb Q}N_q$. It's s.t. $mathbb P(N)=0$ and for all $omega notin N$ and all $qinmathbb Q$, $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.


    • Let $tin mathbb R$ and let $(q_n)_n$ a sequence of $mathbb Q$ s.t. $q_nto t$. If $omega notin N$, then, by continuity
      $$X_t=lim_{nto infty }X_{q_n}=lim_{nto infty }Y_{q_n}=Y_t.$$



    Therefore $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all $t$}}=1$.





    For a counter example for the equality : Let $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure on $Omega =[0,1]$. Let $tin [0,1]$, $X_t=0$ for all $omega $ and $Y_t(omega )=boldsymbol 1_{{t}}(omega )$.



    Then $mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}=1$ for all $t$, but $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=0,$$
    since there is no $omega $ s.t. $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega )$ for all $t$ because for $omega in Omega $ fixed, when $t=omega $ then $X_t(omega )=0$ but $Y_t(omega )=1$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      The only thing you can say for $t$ fixed is $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}leq mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}.$$
      You should pay more attention to the answers I gave you here. It's the same problem here.



      What you must show is that there is $N$ with $mathbb P(N)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin Omega $ and all $t$, $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega ).$




      • If $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$, then $X_q=Y_q$ a.s. for all $qinmathbb Q$. Therefore, for all $qinmathbb Q$, there is $N_q$ with $mathbb P(N_q)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin N_q$ $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.


      • Set $N=bigcup_{qinmathbb Q}N_q$. It's s.t. $mathbb P(N)=0$ and for all $omega notin N$ and all $qinmathbb Q$, $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.


      • Let $tin mathbb R$ and let $(q_n)_n$ a sequence of $mathbb Q$ s.t. $q_nto t$. If $omega notin N$, then, by continuity
        $$X_t=lim_{nto infty }X_{q_n}=lim_{nto infty }Y_{q_n}=Y_t.$$



      Therefore $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all $t$}}=1$.





      For a counter example for the equality : Let $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure on $Omega =[0,1]$. Let $tin [0,1]$, $X_t=0$ for all $omega $ and $Y_t(omega )=boldsymbol 1_{{t}}(omega )$.



      Then $mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}=1$ for all $t$, but $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=0,$$
      since there is no $omega $ s.t. $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega )$ for all $t$ because for $omega in Omega $ fixed, when $t=omega $ then $X_t(omega )=0$ but $Y_t(omega )=1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted






        The only thing you can say for $t$ fixed is $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}leq mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}.$$
        You should pay more attention to the answers I gave you here. It's the same problem here.



        What you must show is that there is $N$ with $mathbb P(N)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin Omega $ and all $t$, $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega ).$




        • If $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$, then $X_q=Y_q$ a.s. for all $qinmathbb Q$. Therefore, for all $qinmathbb Q$, there is $N_q$ with $mathbb P(N_q)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin N_q$ $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.


        • Set $N=bigcup_{qinmathbb Q}N_q$. It's s.t. $mathbb P(N)=0$ and for all $omega notin N$ and all $qinmathbb Q$, $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.


        • Let $tin mathbb R$ and let $(q_n)_n$ a sequence of $mathbb Q$ s.t. $q_nto t$. If $omega notin N$, then, by continuity
          $$X_t=lim_{nto infty }X_{q_n}=lim_{nto infty }Y_{q_n}=Y_t.$$



        Therefore $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all $t$}}=1$.





        For a counter example for the equality : Let $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure on $Omega =[0,1]$. Let $tin [0,1]$, $X_t=0$ for all $omega $ and $Y_t(omega )=boldsymbol 1_{{t}}(omega )$.



        Then $mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}=1$ for all $t$, but $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=0,$$
        since there is no $omega $ s.t. $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega )$ for all $t$ because for $omega in Omega $ fixed, when $t=omega $ then $X_t(omega )=0$ but $Y_t(omega )=1$.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        The only thing you can say for $t$ fixed is $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}leq mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}.$$
        You should pay more attention to the answers I gave you here. It's the same problem here.



        What you must show is that there is $N$ with $mathbb P(N)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin Omega $ and all $t$, $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega ).$




        • If $X_t=Y_t$ a.s. for all $t$, then $X_q=Y_q$ a.s. for all $qinmathbb Q$. Therefore, for all $qinmathbb Q$, there is $N_q$ with $mathbb P(N_q)=0$ s.t. for all $omega notin N_q$ $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.


        • Set $N=bigcup_{qinmathbb Q}N_q$. It's s.t. $mathbb P(N)=0$ and for all $omega notin N$ and all $qinmathbb Q$, $X_q(omega )=Y_q(omega )$.


        • Let $tin mathbb R$ and let $(q_n)_n$ a sequence of $mathbb Q$ s.t. $q_nto t$. If $omega notin N$, then, by continuity
          $$X_t=lim_{nto infty }X_{q_n}=lim_{nto infty }Y_{q_n}=Y_t.$$



        Therefore $mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all $t$}}=1$.





        For a counter example for the equality : Let $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure on $Omega =[0,1]$. Let $tin [0,1]$, $X_t=0$ for all $omega $ and $Y_t(omega )=boldsymbol 1_{{t}}(omega )$.



        Then $mathbb P{X_t=Y_t}=1$ for all $t$, but $$mathbb P{X_t=Y_ttext{ for all }t}=0,$$
        since there is no $omega $ s.t. $X_t(omega )=Y_t(omega )$ for all $t$ because for $omega in Omega $ fixed, when $t=omega $ then $X_t(omega )=0$ but $Y_t(omega )=1$.







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        edited Dec 3 at 13:31

























        answered Dec 3 at 13:24









        Surb

        37.2k94375




        37.2k94375






















            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Since $X_t, Y_t$ are continuous, we have of course
            $$
            mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
            =
            mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
            =
            mathbb Pleft(bigcap_{sinmathbb Q}{|X_s-Y_s|=0}right)
            $$

            a countable intersection of measurable sets of measure $1$.






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • Actually, more is true, namely that, almost surely, $$sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|$$
              – Did
              Dec 3 at 14:06















            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Since $X_t, Y_t$ are continuous, we have of course
            $$
            mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
            =
            mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
            =
            mathbb Pleft(bigcap_{sinmathbb Q}{|X_s-Y_s|=0}right)
            $$

            a countable intersection of measurable sets of measure $1$.






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • Actually, more is true, namely that, almost surely, $$sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|$$
              – Did
              Dec 3 at 14:06













            up vote
            1
            down vote










            up vote
            1
            down vote









            Since $X_t, Y_t$ are continuous, we have of course
            $$
            mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
            =
            mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
            =
            mathbb Pleft(bigcap_{sinmathbb Q}{|X_s-Y_s|=0}right)
            $$

            a countable intersection of measurable sets of measure $1$.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Since $X_t, Y_t$ are continuous, we have of course
            $$
            mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
            =
            mathbb Pleft{sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|=0right}
            =
            mathbb Pleft(bigcap_{sinmathbb Q}{|X_s-Y_s|=0}right)
            $$

            a countable intersection of measurable sets of measure $1$.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Dec 3 at 14:03

























            answered Dec 3 at 13:57









            GEdgar

            61.3k267167




            61.3k267167












            • Actually, more is true, namely that, almost surely, $$sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|$$
              – Did
              Dec 3 at 14:06


















            • Actually, more is true, namely that, almost surely, $$sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|$$
              – Did
              Dec 3 at 14:06
















            Actually, more is true, namely that, almost surely, $$sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|$$
            – Did
            Dec 3 at 14:06




            Actually, more is true, namely that, almost surely, $$sup_{sinmathbb R}|X_s-Y_s|=sup_{sinmathbb Q}|X_s-Y_s|$$
            – Did
            Dec 3 at 14:06


















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