Does the equality of the sum of opposite sides in a quadrilateral necessarily imply the existence of an...












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I had come across a question in which we had to show that a given quadrilateral, if subjected under a condition, had an incircle. So, will it be sufficient to show that $a+b=c+d$, if $a,b,c,d$ are the sides of the quadrilateral? If yes, then would someone please tell me how the equality of the sum of opposite sides in a quadrilateral necessarily implies the existence of an inscribed circle?










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    Yes, if the quadrilateral is convex this condition is sufficient. For a proof see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangential_quadrilateral
    $endgroup$
    – user376343
    Dec 28 '18 at 18:57










  • $begingroup$
    @user376343 Thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Shashwat1337
    Dec 28 '18 at 19:01
















1












$begingroup$


I had come across a question in which we had to show that a given quadrilateral, if subjected under a condition, had an incircle. So, will it be sufficient to show that $a+b=c+d$, if $a,b,c,d$ are the sides of the quadrilateral? If yes, then would someone please tell me how the equality of the sum of opposite sides in a quadrilateral necessarily implies the existence of an inscribed circle?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Yes, if the quadrilateral is convex this condition is sufficient. For a proof see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangential_quadrilateral
    $endgroup$
    – user376343
    Dec 28 '18 at 18:57










  • $begingroup$
    @user376343 Thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Shashwat1337
    Dec 28 '18 at 19:01














1












1








1


0



$begingroup$


I had come across a question in which we had to show that a given quadrilateral, if subjected under a condition, had an incircle. So, will it be sufficient to show that $a+b=c+d$, if $a,b,c,d$ are the sides of the quadrilateral? If yes, then would someone please tell me how the equality of the sum of opposite sides in a quadrilateral necessarily implies the existence of an inscribed circle?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I had come across a question in which we had to show that a given quadrilateral, if subjected under a condition, had an incircle. So, will it be sufficient to show that $a+b=c+d$, if $a,b,c,d$ are the sides of the quadrilateral? If yes, then would someone please tell me how the equality of the sum of opposite sides in a quadrilateral necessarily implies the existence of an inscribed circle?







geometry circle quadrilateral






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edited Dec 28 '18 at 20:37









Michael Rozenberg

104k1892197




104k1892197










asked Dec 28 '18 at 18:53









Shashwat1337Shashwat1337

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789








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Yes, if the quadrilateral is convex this condition is sufficient. For a proof see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangential_quadrilateral
    $endgroup$
    – user376343
    Dec 28 '18 at 18:57










  • $begingroup$
    @user376343 Thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Shashwat1337
    Dec 28 '18 at 19:01














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Yes, if the quadrilateral is convex this condition is sufficient. For a proof see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangential_quadrilateral
    $endgroup$
    – user376343
    Dec 28 '18 at 18:57










  • $begingroup$
    @user376343 Thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Shashwat1337
    Dec 28 '18 at 19:01








2




2




$begingroup$
Yes, if the quadrilateral is convex this condition is sufficient. For a proof see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangential_quadrilateral
$endgroup$
– user376343
Dec 28 '18 at 18:57




$begingroup$
Yes, if the quadrilateral is convex this condition is sufficient. For a proof see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangential_quadrilateral
$endgroup$
– user376343
Dec 28 '18 at 18:57












$begingroup$
@user376343 Thanks
$endgroup$
– Shashwat1337
Dec 28 '18 at 19:01




$begingroup$
@user376343 Thanks
$endgroup$
– Shashwat1337
Dec 28 '18 at 19:01










1 Answer
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1












$begingroup$

Yes, it's true.



Let $ABCD$ be an equilateral with $AB+CD=BC+AD$.



Also, let $AE$ and $BE$ be bisectors of $angle BAD$ and $angle ABC$ respectively.



Thus, the distances from $E$ to $AB$, $AD$ and $BC$ they are equal, which says that the circle with a center $E$ and with a radius is this distance, is touched to sides $AD$, $AB$ and $BC$.



Now, let $CD_1$ is a tangent to the circle, where $D_1$ is placed on the line $AD$.



Thus, $$AB+CD_1=BC+AD_1$$ and
$$AB+CD=BC+AD$$ from the given.



Hence, $$CD_1-CD=AD_1-AD$$ or
$$CD_1-CD=pm DD_1,$$ which by the triangle inequality is possible, when $Dequiv D_1$ and we are done!






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much. The proof was great!
    $endgroup$
    – Shashwat1337
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:37












  • $begingroup$
    @Shashwat1337 You are welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Rozenberg
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:38











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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1












$begingroup$

Yes, it's true.



Let $ABCD$ be an equilateral with $AB+CD=BC+AD$.



Also, let $AE$ and $BE$ be bisectors of $angle BAD$ and $angle ABC$ respectively.



Thus, the distances from $E$ to $AB$, $AD$ and $BC$ they are equal, which says that the circle with a center $E$ and with a radius is this distance, is touched to sides $AD$, $AB$ and $BC$.



Now, let $CD_1$ is a tangent to the circle, where $D_1$ is placed on the line $AD$.



Thus, $$AB+CD_1=BC+AD_1$$ and
$$AB+CD=BC+AD$$ from the given.



Hence, $$CD_1-CD=AD_1-AD$$ or
$$CD_1-CD=pm DD_1,$$ which by the triangle inequality is possible, when $Dequiv D_1$ and we are done!






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much. The proof was great!
    $endgroup$
    – Shashwat1337
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:37












  • $begingroup$
    @Shashwat1337 You are welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Rozenberg
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:38
















1












$begingroup$

Yes, it's true.



Let $ABCD$ be an equilateral with $AB+CD=BC+AD$.



Also, let $AE$ and $BE$ be bisectors of $angle BAD$ and $angle ABC$ respectively.



Thus, the distances from $E$ to $AB$, $AD$ and $BC$ they are equal, which says that the circle with a center $E$ and with a radius is this distance, is touched to sides $AD$, $AB$ and $BC$.



Now, let $CD_1$ is a tangent to the circle, where $D_1$ is placed on the line $AD$.



Thus, $$AB+CD_1=BC+AD_1$$ and
$$AB+CD=BC+AD$$ from the given.



Hence, $$CD_1-CD=AD_1-AD$$ or
$$CD_1-CD=pm DD_1,$$ which by the triangle inequality is possible, when $Dequiv D_1$ and we are done!






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much. The proof was great!
    $endgroup$
    – Shashwat1337
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:37












  • $begingroup$
    @Shashwat1337 You are welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Rozenberg
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:38














1












1








1





$begingroup$

Yes, it's true.



Let $ABCD$ be an equilateral with $AB+CD=BC+AD$.



Also, let $AE$ and $BE$ be bisectors of $angle BAD$ and $angle ABC$ respectively.



Thus, the distances from $E$ to $AB$, $AD$ and $BC$ they are equal, which says that the circle with a center $E$ and with a radius is this distance, is touched to sides $AD$, $AB$ and $BC$.



Now, let $CD_1$ is a tangent to the circle, where $D_1$ is placed on the line $AD$.



Thus, $$AB+CD_1=BC+AD_1$$ and
$$AB+CD=BC+AD$$ from the given.



Hence, $$CD_1-CD=AD_1-AD$$ or
$$CD_1-CD=pm DD_1,$$ which by the triangle inequality is possible, when $Dequiv D_1$ and we are done!






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Yes, it's true.



Let $ABCD$ be an equilateral with $AB+CD=BC+AD$.



Also, let $AE$ and $BE$ be bisectors of $angle BAD$ and $angle ABC$ respectively.



Thus, the distances from $E$ to $AB$, $AD$ and $BC$ they are equal, which says that the circle with a center $E$ and with a radius is this distance, is touched to sides $AD$, $AB$ and $BC$.



Now, let $CD_1$ is a tangent to the circle, where $D_1$ is placed on the line $AD$.



Thus, $$AB+CD_1=BC+AD_1$$ and
$$AB+CD=BC+AD$$ from the given.



Hence, $$CD_1-CD=AD_1-AD$$ or
$$CD_1-CD=pm DD_1,$$ which by the triangle inequality is possible, when $Dequiv D_1$ and we are done!







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 28 '18 at 20:31









Michael RozenbergMichael Rozenberg

104k1892197




104k1892197












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much. The proof was great!
    $endgroup$
    – Shashwat1337
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:37












  • $begingroup$
    @Shashwat1337 You are welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Rozenberg
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:38


















  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much. The proof was great!
    $endgroup$
    – Shashwat1337
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:37












  • $begingroup$
    @Shashwat1337 You are welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Rozenberg
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:38
















$begingroup$
Thank you very much. The proof was great!
$endgroup$
– Shashwat1337
Dec 30 '18 at 17:37






$begingroup$
Thank you very much. The proof was great!
$endgroup$
– Shashwat1337
Dec 30 '18 at 17:37














$begingroup$
@Shashwat1337 You are welcome!
$endgroup$
– Michael Rozenberg
Dec 30 '18 at 17:38




$begingroup$
@Shashwat1337 You are welcome!
$endgroup$
– Michael Rozenberg
Dec 30 '18 at 17:38


















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