Mean of normal CDF












0














Question-




Let $X$ follows $N(mu,sigma^2)$. Show that $mathbb{E}(Phi(X)) neq frac{1}{2}$ for any $mu neq 0$, where $Phi(X)$ is the cdf of $N(0,1)$ distribution.




But the theorem of Probability Integral transformation says that cdf of any random variable follows $Uniform (0,1)$ distribution. So the normal cdf should not depend on $mu$ and always follow $Uniform (0,1)$ distribution with mean $frac{1}{2}$.
Can you please point out what I am missing here?



Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    "cdf of any random variable follows Uniform(0,1) distribution" No, the result is that $F_Y(Y)$ is uniform on $(0,1)$ (if $Y$ is continuous). Here one is looking at $F_Y(X)$ for $X$ and $Y$ with different distributions.
    – Did
    Dec 9 at 14:58






  • 2




    And it happens that $$E(Phi(X))=Phileft(-fracmu{sqrt{1+sigma^2}}right)$$ hence indeed, $E(Phi(X))=frac12$ iff $mu=0$.
    – Did
    Dec 9 at 14:59












  • Can you show the calculation please?
    – user587126
    Dec 9 at 15:28






  • 1




    Start from the fact that, for every $x$, $$Phi(x)=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant x)$$ with $X_0$ standard normal, hence, assuming that $X_0$ is independent of $X$, $$Phi(X)=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant Xmid X)$$ Integrating, one gets $$E(Phi(X))=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant X)=P(sigma X_0-Xleqslant-mu)=cdots$$
    – Did
    Dec 9 at 16:20












  • But why $Phi(X)=P(mu+sigma X_0leq X| X)$ but not $P(mu+sigma X_0leq X)$?
    – user587126
    Dec 9 at 17:49
















0














Question-




Let $X$ follows $N(mu,sigma^2)$. Show that $mathbb{E}(Phi(X)) neq frac{1}{2}$ for any $mu neq 0$, where $Phi(X)$ is the cdf of $N(0,1)$ distribution.




But the theorem of Probability Integral transformation says that cdf of any random variable follows $Uniform (0,1)$ distribution. So the normal cdf should not depend on $mu$ and always follow $Uniform (0,1)$ distribution with mean $frac{1}{2}$.
Can you please point out what I am missing here?



Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    "cdf of any random variable follows Uniform(0,1) distribution" No, the result is that $F_Y(Y)$ is uniform on $(0,1)$ (if $Y$ is continuous). Here one is looking at $F_Y(X)$ for $X$ and $Y$ with different distributions.
    – Did
    Dec 9 at 14:58






  • 2




    And it happens that $$E(Phi(X))=Phileft(-fracmu{sqrt{1+sigma^2}}right)$$ hence indeed, $E(Phi(X))=frac12$ iff $mu=0$.
    – Did
    Dec 9 at 14:59












  • Can you show the calculation please?
    – user587126
    Dec 9 at 15:28






  • 1




    Start from the fact that, for every $x$, $$Phi(x)=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant x)$$ with $X_0$ standard normal, hence, assuming that $X_0$ is independent of $X$, $$Phi(X)=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant Xmid X)$$ Integrating, one gets $$E(Phi(X))=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant X)=P(sigma X_0-Xleqslant-mu)=cdots$$
    – Did
    Dec 9 at 16:20












  • But why $Phi(X)=P(mu+sigma X_0leq X| X)$ but not $P(mu+sigma X_0leq X)$?
    – user587126
    Dec 9 at 17:49














0












0








0







Question-




Let $X$ follows $N(mu,sigma^2)$. Show that $mathbb{E}(Phi(X)) neq frac{1}{2}$ for any $mu neq 0$, where $Phi(X)$ is the cdf of $N(0,1)$ distribution.




But the theorem of Probability Integral transformation says that cdf of any random variable follows $Uniform (0,1)$ distribution. So the normal cdf should not depend on $mu$ and always follow $Uniform (0,1)$ distribution with mean $frac{1}{2}$.
Can you please point out what I am missing here?



Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question













Question-




Let $X$ follows $N(mu,sigma^2)$. Show that $mathbb{E}(Phi(X)) neq frac{1}{2}$ for any $mu neq 0$, where $Phi(X)$ is the cdf of $N(0,1)$ distribution.




But the theorem of Probability Integral transformation says that cdf of any random variable follows $Uniform (0,1)$ distribution. So the normal cdf should not depend on $mu$ and always follow $Uniform (0,1)$ distribution with mean $frac{1}{2}$.
Can you please point out what I am missing here?



Thanks in advance!







probability-theory statistics normal-distribution






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 9 at 14:54









user587126

155




155








  • 1




    "cdf of any random variable follows Uniform(0,1) distribution" No, the result is that $F_Y(Y)$ is uniform on $(0,1)$ (if $Y$ is continuous). Here one is looking at $F_Y(X)$ for $X$ and $Y$ with different distributions.
    – Did
    Dec 9 at 14:58






  • 2




    And it happens that $$E(Phi(X))=Phileft(-fracmu{sqrt{1+sigma^2}}right)$$ hence indeed, $E(Phi(X))=frac12$ iff $mu=0$.
    – Did
    Dec 9 at 14:59












  • Can you show the calculation please?
    – user587126
    Dec 9 at 15:28






  • 1




    Start from the fact that, for every $x$, $$Phi(x)=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant x)$$ with $X_0$ standard normal, hence, assuming that $X_0$ is independent of $X$, $$Phi(X)=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant Xmid X)$$ Integrating, one gets $$E(Phi(X))=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant X)=P(sigma X_0-Xleqslant-mu)=cdots$$
    – Did
    Dec 9 at 16:20












  • But why $Phi(X)=P(mu+sigma X_0leq X| X)$ but not $P(mu+sigma X_0leq X)$?
    – user587126
    Dec 9 at 17:49














  • 1




    "cdf of any random variable follows Uniform(0,1) distribution" No, the result is that $F_Y(Y)$ is uniform on $(0,1)$ (if $Y$ is continuous). Here one is looking at $F_Y(X)$ for $X$ and $Y$ with different distributions.
    – Did
    Dec 9 at 14:58






  • 2




    And it happens that $$E(Phi(X))=Phileft(-fracmu{sqrt{1+sigma^2}}right)$$ hence indeed, $E(Phi(X))=frac12$ iff $mu=0$.
    – Did
    Dec 9 at 14:59












  • Can you show the calculation please?
    – user587126
    Dec 9 at 15:28






  • 1




    Start from the fact that, for every $x$, $$Phi(x)=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant x)$$ with $X_0$ standard normal, hence, assuming that $X_0$ is independent of $X$, $$Phi(X)=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant Xmid X)$$ Integrating, one gets $$E(Phi(X))=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant X)=P(sigma X_0-Xleqslant-mu)=cdots$$
    – Did
    Dec 9 at 16:20












  • But why $Phi(X)=P(mu+sigma X_0leq X| X)$ but not $P(mu+sigma X_0leq X)$?
    – user587126
    Dec 9 at 17:49








1




1




"cdf of any random variable follows Uniform(0,1) distribution" No, the result is that $F_Y(Y)$ is uniform on $(0,1)$ (if $Y$ is continuous). Here one is looking at $F_Y(X)$ for $X$ and $Y$ with different distributions.
– Did
Dec 9 at 14:58




"cdf of any random variable follows Uniform(0,1) distribution" No, the result is that $F_Y(Y)$ is uniform on $(0,1)$ (if $Y$ is continuous). Here one is looking at $F_Y(X)$ for $X$ and $Y$ with different distributions.
– Did
Dec 9 at 14:58




2




2




And it happens that $$E(Phi(X))=Phileft(-fracmu{sqrt{1+sigma^2}}right)$$ hence indeed, $E(Phi(X))=frac12$ iff $mu=0$.
– Did
Dec 9 at 14:59






And it happens that $$E(Phi(X))=Phileft(-fracmu{sqrt{1+sigma^2}}right)$$ hence indeed, $E(Phi(X))=frac12$ iff $mu=0$.
– Did
Dec 9 at 14:59














Can you show the calculation please?
– user587126
Dec 9 at 15:28




Can you show the calculation please?
– user587126
Dec 9 at 15:28




1




1




Start from the fact that, for every $x$, $$Phi(x)=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant x)$$ with $X_0$ standard normal, hence, assuming that $X_0$ is independent of $X$, $$Phi(X)=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant Xmid X)$$ Integrating, one gets $$E(Phi(X))=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant X)=P(sigma X_0-Xleqslant-mu)=cdots$$
– Did
Dec 9 at 16:20






Start from the fact that, for every $x$, $$Phi(x)=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant x)$$ with $X_0$ standard normal, hence, assuming that $X_0$ is independent of $X$, $$Phi(X)=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant Xmid X)$$ Integrating, one gets $$E(Phi(X))=P(mu+sigma X_0leqslant X)=P(sigma X_0-Xleqslant-mu)=cdots$$
– Did
Dec 9 at 16:20














But why $Phi(X)=P(mu+sigma X_0leq X| X)$ but not $P(mu+sigma X_0leq X)$?
– user587126
Dec 9 at 17:49




But why $Phi(X)=P(mu+sigma X_0leq X| X)$ but not $P(mu+sigma X_0leq X)$?
– user587126
Dec 9 at 17:49















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