What is an Itô integral, what does it represent concretely?












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I'm really in truble to understand Itô integral. I can work with it without any problem, but I really don't understand what is it. And why is it an integral ? How can we interpret $$I=int_0^T f(s,B_s)dB_s ?$$




  • Would it be : we consider the brownian motion on $[0,T]$ and a function $f:[0,infty )times mathbb Rto mathbb R$, then the area between $(B_t)_{tin [0,T]}$ and $(f(t,B_t))_{tin [0,T]}$ is a sort of Itô integral $I$ ? (in grey in the following picture)


enter image description here




  • Why are we interested to this integral ? I also saw that if $H_s$ is the number of call we have then $int_0^T H_s dB_t$ is the profit we made after $[0,T]$. I so, why the price of a call is a Brownian motion ? This is very weird for me.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The stochastic integral doesn't represent an area as a Riemann integral. The stochastic integral is just a stochastic process that has the same properties than the integral, that's why we use the integral notation.
    $endgroup$
    – Surb
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:09












  • $begingroup$
    Your first suggestion is bizarre since usual integrals are never this area...
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:10










  • $begingroup$
    @Did : I add a picture to be more clear. Maybe something in this spirit ? (probably not exactely that, but is to relate this to an area). I'm trying to make a comparaison with stiljes integral, but maybe such integral can't be related to an area, doest it ?
    $endgroup$
    – user623855
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:18










  • $begingroup$
    @Surb : And for the interpretation ?
    $endgroup$
    – user623855
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:18










  • $begingroup$
    But already for $f(B_t,t)=1$, this interpretation fails, as surely you can see...
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:19
















1












$begingroup$


I'm really in truble to understand Itô integral. I can work with it without any problem, but I really don't understand what is it. And why is it an integral ? How can we interpret $$I=int_0^T f(s,B_s)dB_s ?$$




  • Would it be : we consider the brownian motion on $[0,T]$ and a function $f:[0,infty )times mathbb Rto mathbb R$, then the area between $(B_t)_{tin [0,T]}$ and $(f(t,B_t))_{tin [0,T]}$ is a sort of Itô integral $I$ ? (in grey in the following picture)


enter image description here




  • Why are we interested to this integral ? I also saw that if $H_s$ is the number of call we have then $int_0^T H_s dB_t$ is the profit we made after $[0,T]$. I so, why the price of a call is a Brownian motion ? This is very weird for me.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The stochastic integral doesn't represent an area as a Riemann integral. The stochastic integral is just a stochastic process that has the same properties than the integral, that's why we use the integral notation.
    $endgroup$
    – Surb
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:09












  • $begingroup$
    Your first suggestion is bizarre since usual integrals are never this area...
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:10










  • $begingroup$
    @Did : I add a picture to be more clear. Maybe something in this spirit ? (probably not exactely that, but is to relate this to an area). I'm trying to make a comparaison with stiljes integral, but maybe such integral can't be related to an area, doest it ?
    $endgroup$
    – user623855
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:18










  • $begingroup$
    @Surb : And for the interpretation ?
    $endgroup$
    – user623855
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:18










  • $begingroup$
    But already for $f(B_t,t)=1$, this interpretation fails, as surely you can see...
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:19














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I'm really in truble to understand Itô integral. I can work with it without any problem, but I really don't understand what is it. And why is it an integral ? How can we interpret $$I=int_0^T f(s,B_s)dB_s ?$$




  • Would it be : we consider the brownian motion on $[0,T]$ and a function $f:[0,infty )times mathbb Rto mathbb R$, then the area between $(B_t)_{tin [0,T]}$ and $(f(t,B_t))_{tin [0,T]}$ is a sort of Itô integral $I$ ? (in grey in the following picture)


enter image description here




  • Why are we interested to this integral ? I also saw that if $H_s$ is the number of call we have then $int_0^T H_s dB_t$ is the profit we made after $[0,T]$. I so, why the price of a call is a Brownian motion ? This is very weird for me.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm really in truble to understand Itô integral. I can work with it without any problem, but I really don't understand what is it. And why is it an integral ? How can we interpret $$I=int_0^T f(s,B_s)dB_s ?$$




  • Would it be : we consider the brownian motion on $[0,T]$ and a function $f:[0,infty )times mathbb Rto mathbb R$, then the area between $(B_t)_{tin [0,T]}$ and $(f(t,B_t))_{tin [0,T]}$ is a sort of Itô integral $I$ ? (in grey in the following picture)


enter image description here




  • Why are we interested to this integral ? I also saw that if $H_s$ is the number of call we have then $int_0^T H_s dB_t$ is the profit we made after $[0,T]$. I so, why the price of a call is a Brownian motion ? This is very weird for me.







stochastic-calculus






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Dec 29 '18 at 11:16







user623855

















asked Dec 29 '18 at 11:05









user623855user623855

1457




1457












  • $begingroup$
    The stochastic integral doesn't represent an area as a Riemann integral. The stochastic integral is just a stochastic process that has the same properties than the integral, that's why we use the integral notation.
    $endgroup$
    – Surb
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:09












  • $begingroup$
    Your first suggestion is bizarre since usual integrals are never this area...
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:10










  • $begingroup$
    @Did : I add a picture to be more clear. Maybe something in this spirit ? (probably not exactely that, but is to relate this to an area). I'm trying to make a comparaison with stiljes integral, but maybe such integral can't be related to an area, doest it ?
    $endgroup$
    – user623855
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:18










  • $begingroup$
    @Surb : And for the interpretation ?
    $endgroup$
    – user623855
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:18










  • $begingroup$
    But already for $f(B_t,t)=1$, this interpretation fails, as surely you can see...
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:19


















  • $begingroup$
    The stochastic integral doesn't represent an area as a Riemann integral. The stochastic integral is just a stochastic process that has the same properties than the integral, that's why we use the integral notation.
    $endgroup$
    – Surb
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:09












  • $begingroup$
    Your first suggestion is bizarre since usual integrals are never this area...
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:10










  • $begingroup$
    @Did : I add a picture to be more clear. Maybe something in this spirit ? (probably not exactely that, but is to relate this to an area). I'm trying to make a comparaison with stiljes integral, but maybe such integral can't be related to an area, doest it ?
    $endgroup$
    – user623855
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:18










  • $begingroup$
    @Surb : And for the interpretation ?
    $endgroup$
    – user623855
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:18










  • $begingroup$
    But already for $f(B_t,t)=1$, this interpretation fails, as surely you can see...
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 29 '18 at 11:19
















$begingroup$
The stochastic integral doesn't represent an area as a Riemann integral. The stochastic integral is just a stochastic process that has the same properties than the integral, that's why we use the integral notation.
$endgroup$
– Surb
Dec 29 '18 at 11:09






$begingroup$
The stochastic integral doesn't represent an area as a Riemann integral. The stochastic integral is just a stochastic process that has the same properties than the integral, that's why we use the integral notation.
$endgroup$
– Surb
Dec 29 '18 at 11:09














$begingroup$
Your first suggestion is bizarre since usual integrals are never this area...
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 29 '18 at 11:10




$begingroup$
Your first suggestion is bizarre since usual integrals are never this area...
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 29 '18 at 11:10












$begingroup$
@Did : I add a picture to be more clear. Maybe something in this spirit ? (probably not exactely that, but is to relate this to an area). I'm trying to make a comparaison with stiljes integral, but maybe such integral can't be related to an area, doest it ?
$endgroup$
– user623855
Dec 29 '18 at 11:18




$begingroup$
@Did : I add a picture to be more clear. Maybe something in this spirit ? (probably not exactely that, but is to relate this to an area). I'm trying to make a comparaison with stiljes integral, but maybe such integral can't be related to an area, doest it ?
$endgroup$
– user623855
Dec 29 '18 at 11:18












$begingroup$
@Surb : And for the interpretation ?
$endgroup$
– user623855
Dec 29 '18 at 11:18




$begingroup$
@Surb : And for the interpretation ?
$endgroup$
– user623855
Dec 29 '18 at 11:18












$begingroup$
But already for $f(B_t,t)=1$, this interpretation fails, as surely you can see...
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 29 '18 at 11:19




$begingroup$
But already for $f(B_t,t)=1$, this interpretation fails, as surely you can see...
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 29 '18 at 11:19










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