Using Algebraic Topology, show that $M times N$ is orientable if and only if $M$ and $N$ are both orientable.












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$begingroup$


This is an exercise 3.3.5 in Hatcher's Algebraic Topology book.



3.3.5: Show that $M times N$ is orientable if and only if $M$ and $N$ are both orientable.



Notation: For $x in M$, $H_n(M|x):=H_n(M,M-x)$.



Definition: An orientation of an $m$-dimensional manifold $M$ is a function $x to mu_x$ assigning to each $x in M$ a local orientation of $mu_x in H_n(M|x)$ satisfying the local consistency condition that each $x in M$ has a neighbourhood $U approx mathbb R^m subset M$ containing an open ball $B$ of finite radius about $x$ such that all the local orientations
$mu_y$ at points $y in B$ are the images of one generator $mu_B$ of $H_n(M|B) approx H_n(mathbb R^m |B)$ under the natural maps $H_n(M|B) to H_n(B|y)$ induced by inclusion. If an orientation exists for $M$, then $M$ is called orientable.



Attempt: Let $x to mu_x, y to mu_y$ be respective functions assigning to $xin M$ and $yin N$ local orientations as described above.



By Section 3B of Hatcher, there is a cross product homomorphism $$H_i(M,M-x) otimes H_j(N, N-y) to H_{i+j}(Mtimes N, (M-x)times (N-y)).$$



Since $M-xsubset M$ and $N-y subset N$, we have $(M-x)times (N-y) subset M times N$. At this point, can we say that $$(M-x)times (N-y) subset M times N-(x,y)?$$



If this holds, then the function $(x,y) to mu_x otimes mu_y$ assigning to $(x,y) in Mtimes N$ local orientation in the above manner gives the global orientation for $Mtimes N$.



Any suggestion will be appreciated.










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$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    This is an exercise 3.3.5 in Hatcher's Algebraic Topology book.



    3.3.5: Show that $M times N$ is orientable if and only if $M$ and $N$ are both orientable.



    Notation: For $x in M$, $H_n(M|x):=H_n(M,M-x)$.



    Definition: An orientation of an $m$-dimensional manifold $M$ is a function $x to mu_x$ assigning to each $x in M$ a local orientation of $mu_x in H_n(M|x)$ satisfying the local consistency condition that each $x in M$ has a neighbourhood $U approx mathbb R^m subset M$ containing an open ball $B$ of finite radius about $x$ such that all the local orientations
    $mu_y$ at points $y in B$ are the images of one generator $mu_B$ of $H_n(M|B) approx H_n(mathbb R^m |B)$ under the natural maps $H_n(M|B) to H_n(B|y)$ induced by inclusion. If an orientation exists for $M$, then $M$ is called orientable.



    Attempt: Let $x to mu_x, y to mu_y$ be respective functions assigning to $xin M$ and $yin N$ local orientations as described above.



    By Section 3B of Hatcher, there is a cross product homomorphism $$H_i(M,M-x) otimes H_j(N, N-y) to H_{i+j}(Mtimes N, (M-x)times (N-y)).$$



    Since $M-xsubset M$ and $N-y subset N$, we have $(M-x)times (N-y) subset M times N$. At this point, can we say that $$(M-x)times (N-y) subset M times N-(x,y)?$$



    If this holds, then the function $(x,y) to mu_x otimes mu_y$ assigning to $(x,y) in Mtimes N$ local orientation in the above manner gives the global orientation for $Mtimes N$.



    Any suggestion will be appreciated.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2


      3



      $begingroup$


      This is an exercise 3.3.5 in Hatcher's Algebraic Topology book.



      3.3.5: Show that $M times N$ is orientable if and only if $M$ and $N$ are both orientable.



      Notation: For $x in M$, $H_n(M|x):=H_n(M,M-x)$.



      Definition: An orientation of an $m$-dimensional manifold $M$ is a function $x to mu_x$ assigning to each $x in M$ a local orientation of $mu_x in H_n(M|x)$ satisfying the local consistency condition that each $x in M$ has a neighbourhood $U approx mathbb R^m subset M$ containing an open ball $B$ of finite radius about $x$ such that all the local orientations
      $mu_y$ at points $y in B$ are the images of one generator $mu_B$ of $H_n(M|B) approx H_n(mathbb R^m |B)$ under the natural maps $H_n(M|B) to H_n(B|y)$ induced by inclusion. If an orientation exists for $M$, then $M$ is called orientable.



      Attempt: Let $x to mu_x, y to mu_y$ be respective functions assigning to $xin M$ and $yin N$ local orientations as described above.



      By Section 3B of Hatcher, there is a cross product homomorphism $$H_i(M,M-x) otimes H_j(N, N-y) to H_{i+j}(Mtimes N, (M-x)times (N-y)).$$



      Since $M-xsubset M$ and $N-y subset N$, we have $(M-x)times (N-y) subset M times N$. At this point, can we say that $$(M-x)times (N-y) subset M times N-(x,y)?$$



      If this holds, then the function $(x,y) to mu_x otimes mu_y$ assigning to $(x,y) in Mtimes N$ local orientation in the above manner gives the global orientation for $Mtimes N$.



      Any suggestion will be appreciated.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      This is an exercise 3.3.5 in Hatcher's Algebraic Topology book.



      3.3.5: Show that $M times N$ is orientable if and only if $M$ and $N$ are both orientable.



      Notation: For $x in M$, $H_n(M|x):=H_n(M,M-x)$.



      Definition: An orientation of an $m$-dimensional manifold $M$ is a function $x to mu_x$ assigning to each $x in M$ a local orientation of $mu_x in H_n(M|x)$ satisfying the local consistency condition that each $x in M$ has a neighbourhood $U approx mathbb R^m subset M$ containing an open ball $B$ of finite radius about $x$ such that all the local orientations
      $mu_y$ at points $y in B$ are the images of one generator $mu_B$ of $H_n(M|B) approx H_n(mathbb R^m |B)$ under the natural maps $H_n(M|B) to H_n(B|y)$ induced by inclusion. If an orientation exists for $M$, then $M$ is called orientable.



      Attempt: Let $x to mu_x, y to mu_y$ be respective functions assigning to $xin M$ and $yin N$ local orientations as described above.



      By Section 3B of Hatcher, there is a cross product homomorphism $$H_i(M,M-x) otimes H_j(N, N-y) to H_{i+j}(Mtimes N, (M-x)times (N-y)).$$



      Since $M-xsubset M$ and $N-y subset N$, we have $(M-x)times (N-y) subset M times N$. At this point, can we say that $$(M-x)times (N-y) subset M times N-(x,y)?$$



      If this holds, then the function $(x,y) to mu_x otimes mu_y$ assigning to $(x,y) in Mtimes N$ local orientation in the above manner gives the global orientation for $Mtimes N$.



      Any suggestion will be appreciated.







      algebraic-topology






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      asked Dec 22 '18 at 17:15









      M. Giovanni LucarettiM. Giovanni Lucaretti

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          $begingroup$

          Checking whether $(M-x) times (N-y) subset (M times N) - (x,y)$ is purely a matter of set theory. However it's not true in general because $(M-x) times (N-y)$ also excludes ${x} times N$ and $M times {y}$.



          If you look at page $276$ of Hatcher, you see that $$C_ast(M)/C_ast(M-x) otimes C_ast(N)/C_ast(N-y) cong C_ast(M times N)/C_ast([(M-x) times N ]cup [M times (N-y)])$$ The latter term is the same as $C_ast(Mtimes N)/C_ast(Mtimes N - (x,y))$ and should help give the isomorphism in homology you're looking for.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            The latter term is the same as $C_ast(Mtimes N)/C_ast(Mtimes N - (x,y))$ due to a set theoretical identity?
            $endgroup$
            – M. Giovanni Lucaretti
            Dec 22 '18 at 17:52










          • $begingroup$
            Yes! Hopefully it's clear that $(M times N) - (x,y) subset [(M-x) times N] cup [M times (N-y)]$. Any point either has a non-$x$ first coordinate or a non-$y$ second coordinate. The reverse inclusion can be seen by using De Morgan's law and realizing the complement is $(x times N) cap (M times y) = (x,y)$. (After writing this I realized the entire thing can be proven using De Morgan).
            $endgroup$
            – Osama Ghani
            Dec 22 '18 at 17:57













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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

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          3












          $begingroup$

          Checking whether $(M-x) times (N-y) subset (M times N) - (x,y)$ is purely a matter of set theory. However it's not true in general because $(M-x) times (N-y)$ also excludes ${x} times N$ and $M times {y}$.



          If you look at page $276$ of Hatcher, you see that $$C_ast(M)/C_ast(M-x) otimes C_ast(N)/C_ast(N-y) cong C_ast(M times N)/C_ast([(M-x) times N ]cup [M times (N-y)])$$ The latter term is the same as $C_ast(Mtimes N)/C_ast(Mtimes N - (x,y))$ and should help give the isomorphism in homology you're looking for.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            The latter term is the same as $C_ast(Mtimes N)/C_ast(Mtimes N - (x,y))$ due to a set theoretical identity?
            $endgroup$
            – M. Giovanni Lucaretti
            Dec 22 '18 at 17:52










          • $begingroup$
            Yes! Hopefully it's clear that $(M times N) - (x,y) subset [(M-x) times N] cup [M times (N-y)]$. Any point either has a non-$x$ first coordinate or a non-$y$ second coordinate. The reverse inclusion can be seen by using De Morgan's law and realizing the complement is $(x times N) cap (M times y) = (x,y)$. (After writing this I realized the entire thing can be proven using De Morgan).
            $endgroup$
            – Osama Ghani
            Dec 22 '18 at 17:57


















          3












          $begingroup$

          Checking whether $(M-x) times (N-y) subset (M times N) - (x,y)$ is purely a matter of set theory. However it's not true in general because $(M-x) times (N-y)$ also excludes ${x} times N$ and $M times {y}$.



          If you look at page $276$ of Hatcher, you see that $$C_ast(M)/C_ast(M-x) otimes C_ast(N)/C_ast(N-y) cong C_ast(M times N)/C_ast([(M-x) times N ]cup [M times (N-y)])$$ The latter term is the same as $C_ast(Mtimes N)/C_ast(Mtimes N - (x,y))$ and should help give the isomorphism in homology you're looking for.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            The latter term is the same as $C_ast(Mtimes N)/C_ast(Mtimes N - (x,y))$ due to a set theoretical identity?
            $endgroup$
            – M. Giovanni Lucaretti
            Dec 22 '18 at 17:52










          • $begingroup$
            Yes! Hopefully it's clear that $(M times N) - (x,y) subset [(M-x) times N] cup [M times (N-y)]$. Any point either has a non-$x$ first coordinate or a non-$y$ second coordinate. The reverse inclusion can be seen by using De Morgan's law and realizing the complement is $(x times N) cap (M times y) = (x,y)$. (After writing this I realized the entire thing can be proven using De Morgan).
            $endgroup$
            – Osama Ghani
            Dec 22 '18 at 17:57
















          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          Checking whether $(M-x) times (N-y) subset (M times N) - (x,y)$ is purely a matter of set theory. However it's not true in general because $(M-x) times (N-y)$ also excludes ${x} times N$ and $M times {y}$.



          If you look at page $276$ of Hatcher, you see that $$C_ast(M)/C_ast(M-x) otimes C_ast(N)/C_ast(N-y) cong C_ast(M times N)/C_ast([(M-x) times N ]cup [M times (N-y)])$$ The latter term is the same as $C_ast(Mtimes N)/C_ast(Mtimes N - (x,y))$ and should help give the isomorphism in homology you're looking for.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Checking whether $(M-x) times (N-y) subset (M times N) - (x,y)$ is purely a matter of set theory. However it's not true in general because $(M-x) times (N-y)$ also excludes ${x} times N$ and $M times {y}$.



          If you look at page $276$ of Hatcher, you see that $$C_ast(M)/C_ast(M-x) otimes C_ast(N)/C_ast(N-y) cong C_ast(M times N)/C_ast([(M-x) times N ]cup [M times (N-y)])$$ The latter term is the same as $C_ast(Mtimes N)/C_ast(Mtimes N - (x,y))$ and should help give the isomorphism in homology you're looking for.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 22 '18 at 17:51









          M. Giovanni Lucaretti

          797




          797










          answered Dec 22 '18 at 17:42









          Osama GhaniOsama Ghani

          1,172313




          1,172313












          • $begingroup$
            The latter term is the same as $C_ast(Mtimes N)/C_ast(Mtimes N - (x,y))$ due to a set theoretical identity?
            $endgroup$
            – M. Giovanni Lucaretti
            Dec 22 '18 at 17:52










          • $begingroup$
            Yes! Hopefully it's clear that $(M times N) - (x,y) subset [(M-x) times N] cup [M times (N-y)]$. Any point either has a non-$x$ first coordinate or a non-$y$ second coordinate. The reverse inclusion can be seen by using De Morgan's law and realizing the complement is $(x times N) cap (M times y) = (x,y)$. (After writing this I realized the entire thing can be proven using De Morgan).
            $endgroup$
            – Osama Ghani
            Dec 22 '18 at 17:57




















          • $begingroup$
            The latter term is the same as $C_ast(Mtimes N)/C_ast(Mtimes N - (x,y))$ due to a set theoretical identity?
            $endgroup$
            – M. Giovanni Lucaretti
            Dec 22 '18 at 17:52










          • $begingroup$
            Yes! Hopefully it's clear that $(M times N) - (x,y) subset [(M-x) times N] cup [M times (N-y)]$. Any point either has a non-$x$ first coordinate or a non-$y$ second coordinate. The reverse inclusion can be seen by using De Morgan's law and realizing the complement is $(x times N) cap (M times y) = (x,y)$. (After writing this I realized the entire thing can be proven using De Morgan).
            $endgroup$
            – Osama Ghani
            Dec 22 '18 at 17:57


















          $begingroup$
          The latter term is the same as $C_ast(Mtimes N)/C_ast(Mtimes N - (x,y))$ due to a set theoretical identity?
          $endgroup$
          – M. Giovanni Lucaretti
          Dec 22 '18 at 17:52




          $begingroup$
          The latter term is the same as $C_ast(Mtimes N)/C_ast(Mtimes N - (x,y))$ due to a set theoretical identity?
          $endgroup$
          – M. Giovanni Lucaretti
          Dec 22 '18 at 17:52












          $begingroup$
          Yes! Hopefully it's clear that $(M times N) - (x,y) subset [(M-x) times N] cup [M times (N-y)]$. Any point either has a non-$x$ first coordinate or a non-$y$ second coordinate. The reverse inclusion can be seen by using De Morgan's law and realizing the complement is $(x times N) cap (M times y) = (x,y)$. (After writing this I realized the entire thing can be proven using De Morgan).
          $endgroup$
          – Osama Ghani
          Dec 22 '18 at 17:57






          $begingroup$
          Yes! Hopefully it's clear that $(M times N) - (x,y) subset [(M-x) times N] cup [M times (N-y)]$. Any point either has a non-$x$ first coordinate or a non-$y$ second coordinate. The reverse inclusion can be seen by using De Morgan's law and realizing the complement is $(x times N) cap (M times y) = (x,y)$. (After writing this I realized the entire thing can be proven using De Morgan).
          $endgroup$
          – Osama Ghani
          Dec 22 '18 at 17:57




















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