Dual space of $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$.












1












$begingroup$


I want to show that for $pin(1,+infty)$ the dual space of $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ is isometrically isomorphic to $L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$, where $frac{1}{p}+frac{1}{q}=1$.



We have already shown the analogous result for $mathbb{R}$ instead of $mathbb{R}^n$ and therefore considered the bounded linear functional
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega fg,dmu
end{align*}

for every $gin L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$, where $fin L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$. We then proved that the mapping $gmapstophi_g$ is an isometric isomorphism.



After several attempts, I have still not even figured out how to start, as I need to find an analogous functional $phi_g$. I can not use the previous one with $fg$ considered to be a component-wise product, since the result would not be a scalar anymore, right? I have also thought about
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega langle f(x),g(x)rangle,dmu(x),
end{align*}

where $langle.,.rangle$ is the standard scalar product in $mathbb{R}^d$. Is that an option?



Thanks in advance!



Edit: On $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ we define the norm
begin{align*}
|f|:=left(int_Omega|f(x)|_p^p,dmu(x)right)^{frac{1}{p}},
end{align*}

where $|.|_p$ is the $p$-norm on $mathbb{R}^d$ and obtain a Banach space (I've already shown that).










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Yes. That is the correct thing to do.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 6 at 11:59










  • $begingroup$
    Good to hear. I would then continue showing that $|phi_g|leq|g|$, where $|phi_g|$ is the operator norm of $phi_g$. Here is my attempt: begin{align*} left|intlangle f,grangle,dmuright| &leq sum_{i=1}^dint |f_ig_i|,dmu \ &leq sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}} \ &stackrel{(?)}{leq} left(intsum_{i=1}^d|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(intsum_{i=1}^d|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}. end{align*} As tagged, I am not sure how to reason the last inequality or if it is even correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Lemma 5
    Jan 6 at 13:16


















1












$begingroup$


I want to show that for $pin(1,+infty)$ the dual space of $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ is isometrically isomorphic to $L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$, where $frac{1}{p}+frac{1}{q}=1$.



We have already shown the analogous result for $mathbb{R}$ instead of $mathbb{R}^n$ and therefore considered the bounded linear functional
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega fg,dmu
end{align*}

for every $gin L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$, where $fin L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$. We then proved that the mapping $gmapstophi_g$ is an isometric isomorphism.



After several attempts, I have still not even figured out how to start, as I need to find an analogous functional $phi_g$. I can not use the previous one with $fg$ considered to be a component-wise product, since the result would not be a scalar anymore, right? I have also thought about
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega langle f(x),g(x)rangle,dmu(x),
end{align*}

where $langle.,.rangle$ is the standard scalar product in $mathbb{R}^d$. Is that an option?



Thanks in advance!



Edit: On $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ we define the norm
begin{align*}
|f|:=left(int_Omega|f(x)|_p^p,dmu(x)right)^{frac{1}{p}},
end{align*}

where $|.|_p$ is the $p$-norm on $mathbb{R}^d$ and obtain a Banach space (I've already shown that).










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Yes. That is the correct thing to do.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 6 at 11:59










  • $begingroup$
    Good to hear. I would then continue showing that $|phi_g|leq|g|$, where $|phi_g|$ is the operator norm of $phi_g$. Here is my attempt: begin{align*} left|intlangle f,grangle,dmuright| &leq sum_{i=1}^dint |f_ig_i|,dmu \ &leq sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}} \ &stackrel{(?)}{leq} left(intsum_{i=1}^d|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(intsum_{i=1}^d|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}. end{align*} As tagged, I am not sure how to reason the last inequality or if it is even correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Lemma 5
    Jan 6 at 13:16
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


I want to show that for $pin(1,+infty)$ the dual space of $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ is isometrically isomorphic to $L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$, where $frac{1}{p}+frac{1}{q}=1$.



We have already shown the analogous result for $mathbb{R}$ instead of $mathbb{R}^n$ and therefore considered the bounded linear functional
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega fg,dmu
end{align*}

for every $gin L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$, where $fin L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$. We then proved that the mapping $gmapstophi_g$ is an isometric isomorphism.



After several attempts, I have still not even figured out how to start, as I need to find an analogous functional $phi_g$. I can not use the previous one with $fg$ considered to be a component-wise product, since the result would not be a scalar anymore, right? I have also thought about
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega langle f(x),g(x)rangle,dmu(x),
end{align*}

where $langle.,.rangle$ is the standard scalar product in $mathbb{R}^d$. Is that an option?



Thanks in advance!



Edit: On $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ we define the norm
begin{align*}
|f|:=left(int_Omega|f(x)|_p^p,dmu(x)right)^{frac{1}{p}},
end{align*}

where $|.|_p$ is the $p$-norm on $mathbb{R}^d$ and obtain a Banach space (I've already shown that).










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I want to show that for $pin(1,+infty)$ the dual space of $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ is isometrically isomorphic to $L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$, where $frac{1}{p}+frac{1}{q}=1$.



We have already shown the analogous result for $mathbb{R}$ instead of $mathbb{R}^n$ and therefore considered the bounded linear functional
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega fg,dmu
end{align*}

for every $gin L^q(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$, where $fin L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R})$. We then proved that the mapping $gmapstophi_g$ is an isometric isomorphism.



After several attempts, I have still not even figured out how to start, as I need to find an analogous functional $phi_g$. I can not use the previous one with $fg$ considered to be a component-wise product, since the result would not be a scalar anymore, right? I have also thought about
begin{align*}
phi_g:fmapstoint_Omega langle f(x),g(x)rangle,dmu(x),
end{align*}

where $langle.,.rangle$ is the standard scalar product in $mathbb{R}^d$. Is that an option?



Thanks in advance!



Edit: On $L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb{R}^d)$ we define the norm
begin{align*}
|f|:=left(int_Omega|f(x)|_p^p,dmu(x)right)^{frac{1}{p}},
end{align*}

where $|.|_p$ is the $p$-norm on $mathbb{R}^d$ and obtain a Banach space (I've already shown that).







functional-analysis measure-theory lp-spaces dual-spaces






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 6 at 12:54







Lemma 5

















asked Jan 6 at 11:56









Lemma 5Lemma 5

63




63












  • $begingroup$
    Yes. That is the correct thing to do.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 6 at 11:59










  • $begingroup$
    Good to hear. I would then continue showing that $|phi_g|leq|g|$, where $|phi_g|$ is the operator norm of $phi_g$. Here is my attempt: begin{align*} left|intlangle f,grangle,dmuright| &leq sum_{i=1}^dint |f_ig_i|,dmu \ &leq sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}} \ &stackrel{(?)}{leq} left(intsum_{i=1}^d|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(intsum_{i=1}^d|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}. end{align*} As tagged, I am not sure how to reason the last inequality or if it is even correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Lemma 5
    Jan 6 at 13:16




















  • $begingroup$
    Yes. That is the correct thing to do.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 6 at 11:59










  • $begingroup$
    Good to hear. I would then continue showing that $|phi_g|leq|g|$, where $|phi_g|$ is the operator norm of $phi_g$. Here is my attempt: begin{align*} left|intlangle f,grangle,dmuright| &leq sum_{i=1}^dint |f_ig_i|,dmu \ &leq sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}} \ &stackrel{(?)}{leq} left(intsum_{i=1}^d|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(intsum_{i=1}^d|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}. end{align*} As tagged, I am not sure how to reason the last inequality or if it is even correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Lemma 5
    Jan 6 at 13:16


















$begingroup$
Yes. That is the correct thing to do.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 6 at 11:59




$begingroup$
Yes. That is the correct thing to do.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 6 at 11:59












$begingroup$
Good to hear. I would then continue showing that $|phi_g|leq|g|$, where $|phi_g|$ is the operator norm of $phi_g$. Here is my attempt: begin{align*} left|intlangle f,grangle,dmuright| &leq sum_{i=1}^dint |f_ig_i|,dmu \ &leq sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}} \ &stackrel{(?)}{leq} left(intsum_{i=1}^d|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(intsum_{i=1}^d|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}. end{align*} As tagged, I am not sure how to reason the last inequality or if it is even correct.
$endgroup$
– Lemma 5
Jan 6 at 13:16






$begingroup$
Good to hear. I would then continue showing that $|phi_g|leq|g|$, where $|phi_g|$ is the operator norm of $phi_g$. Here is my attempt: begin{align*} left|intlangle f,grangle,dmuright| &leq sum_{i=1}^dint |f_ig_i|,dmu \ &leq sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}} \ &stackrel{(?)}{leq} left(intsum_{i=1}^d|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(intsum_{i=1}^d|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}. end{align*} As tagged, I am not sure how to reason the last inequality or if it is even correct.
$endgroup$
– Lemma 5
Jan 6 at 13:16












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

You have this version of Hölder's Inequality (when using it with the discrete measure):
$$
left|sum_j a_jb_jright|leqleft(sum_j|a_j|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_j|b_j|^qright)^{1/q}.
$$

Then
$$
sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}
leq left(sum_i int|f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_i int|g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
=left(intsum_i |f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(intsum_i |g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Oh I somehow completely forgot Hölder, although having used the same inequality in the line above :D Thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – Lemma 5
    Jan 6 at 22:20



















0












$begingroup$

Another way to see this is to use the following result: for Banach spaces $X_1,dots,X_n,$ consider the direct sum,
$$ X = bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i, $$
equipped with the $p$-norm,
$$ lVert (x_1,dots,x_n) rVert_{p} = left(lVert x_irVert_{X_i}^pright)^{1/p}. $$
Then we can show that,
$$ X^* cong bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i^*, $$
equipped with the $p^*$-norm $lVert cdot rVert_{p^*}$ defined similarly. Here the duality pairing is what you expect:
$$ leftlangle (x_1,dots,x_n),(f_1,dots,f_n) rightrangle = sum_{i=1}^n langle x_i, f_i rangle. $$





Now we can use the fact that,
$$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d) cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu), $$
equipped with the $p$-norm as above. Hence the duality result shows that,
$$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu) cong L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d), $$
as required (the sums are equipped with the $p^*$ norms here). Note this gives the same pairing as the one you described, and both approaches (direct vs using the above result) boil down to the same argument.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    You have this version of Hölder's Inequality (when using it with the discrete measure):
    $$
    left|sum_j a_jb_jright|leqleft(sum_j|a_j|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_j|b_j|^qright)^{1/q}.
    $$

    Then
    $$
    sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}
    leq left(sum_i int|f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_i int|g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
    =left(intsum_i |f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(intsum_i |g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Oh I somehow completely forgot Hölder, although having used the same inequality in the line above :D Thanks a lot!
      $endgroup$
      – Lemma 5
      Jan 6 at 22:20
















    0












    $begingroup$

    You have this version of Hölder's Inequality (when using it with the discrete measure):
    $$
    left|sum_j a_jb_jright|leqleft(sum_j|a_j|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_j|b_j|^qright)^{1/q}.
    $$

    Then
    $$
    sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}
    leq left(sum_i int|f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_i int|g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
    =left(intsum_i |f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(intsum_i |g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Oh I somehow completely forgot Hölder, although having used the same inequality in the line above :D Thanks a lot!
      $endgroup$
      – Lemma 5
      Jan 6 at 22:20














    0












    0








    0





    $begingroup$

    You have this version of Hölder's Inequality (when using it with the discrete measure):
    $$
    left|sum_j a_jb_jright|leqleft(sum_j|a_j|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_j|b_j|^qright)^{1/q}.
    $$

    Then
    $$
    sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}
    leq left(sum_i int|f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_i int|g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
    =left(intsum_i |f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(intsum_i |g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    You have this version of Hölder's Inequality (when using it with the discrete measure):
    $$
    left|sum_j a_jb_jright|leqleft(sum_j|a_j|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_j|b_j|^qright)^{1/q}.
    $$

    Then
    $$
    sum_{i=1}^dleft(int|f_i|^pright)^{frac{1}{p}}left(int|g_i|^qright)^{frac{1}{q}}
    leq left(sum_i int|f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(sum_i int|g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
    =left(intsum_i |f_i|^pright)^{1/p}left(intsum_i |g_i|^qright)^{1/q}
    $$







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jan 6 at 20:55









    Martin ArgeramiMartin Argerami

    128k1184184




    128k1184184












    • $begingroup$
      Oh I somehow completely forgot Hölder, although having used the same inequality in the line above :D Thanks a lot!
      $endgroup$
      – Lemma 5
      Jan 6 at 22:20


















    • $begingroup$
      Oh I somehow completely forgot Hölder, although having used the same inequality in the line above :D Thanks a lot!
      $endgroup$
      – Lemma 5
      Jan 6 at 22:20
















    $begingroup$
    Oh I somehow completely forgot Hölder, although having used the same inequality in the line above :D Thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – Lemma 5
    Jan 6 at 22:20




    $begingroup$
    Oh I somehow completely forgot Hölder, although having used the same inequality in the line above :D Thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – Lemma 5
    Jan 6 at 22:20











    0












    $begingroup$

    Another way to see this is to use the following result: for Banach spaces $X_1,dots,X_n,$ consider the direct sum,
    $$ X = bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i, $$
    equipped with the $p$-norm,
    $$ lVert (x_1,dots,x_n) rVert_{p} = left(lVert x_irVert_{X_i}^pright)^{1/p}. $$
    Then we can show that,
    $$ X^* cong bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i^*, $$
    equipped with the $p^*$-norm $lVert cdot rVert_{p^*}$ defined similarly. Here the duality pairing is what you expect:
    $$ leftlangle (x_1,dots,x_n),(f_1,dots,f_n) rightrangle = sum_{i=1}^n langle x_i, f_i rangle. $$





    Now we can use the fact that,
    $$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d) cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu), $$
    equipped with the $p$-norm as above. Hence the duality result shows that,
    $$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu) cong L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d), $$
    as required (the sums are equipped with the $p^*$ norms here). Note this gives the same pairing as the one you described, and both approaches (direct vs using the above result) boil down to the same argument.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Another way to see this is to use the following result: for Banach spaces $X_1,dots,X_n,$ consider the direct sum,
      $$ X = bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i, $$
      equipped with the $p$-norm,
      $$ lVert (x_1,dots,x_n) rVert_{p} = left(lVert x_irVert_{X_i}^pright)^{1/p}. $$
      Then we can show that,
      $$ X^* cong bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i^*, $$
      equipped with the $p^*$-norm $lVert cdot rVert_{p^*}$ defined similarly. Here the duality pairing is what you expect:
      $$ leftlangle (x_1,dots,x_n),(f_1,dots,f_n) rightrangle = sum_{i=1}^n langle x_i, f_i rangle. $$





      Now we can use the fact that,
      $$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d) cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu), $$
      equipped with the $p$-norm as above. Hence the duality result shows that,
      $$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu) cong L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d), $$
      as required (the sums are equipped with the $p^*$ norms here). Note this gives the same pairing as the one you described, and both approaches (direct vs using the above result) boil down to the same argument.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Another way to see this is to use the following result: for Banach spaces $X_1,dots,X_n,$ consider the direct sum,
        $$ X = bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i, $$
        equipped with the $p$-norm,
        $$ lVert (x_1,dots,x_n) rVert_{p} = left(lVert x_irVert_{X_i}^pright)^{1/p}. $$
        Then we can show that,
        $$ X^* cong bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i^*, $$
        equipped with the $p^*$-norm $lVert cdot rVert_{p^*}$ defined similarly. Here the duality pairing is what you expect:
        $$ leftlangle (x_1,dots,x_n),(f_1,dots,f_n) rightrangle = sum_{i=1}^n langle x_i, f_i rangle. $$





        Now we can use the fact that,
        $$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d) cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu), $$
        equipped with the $p$-norm as above. Hence the duality result shows that,
        $$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu) cong L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d), $$
        as required (the sums are equipped with the $p^*$ norms here). Note this gives the same pairing as the one you described, and both approaches (direct vs using the above result) boil down to the same argument.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Another way to see this is to use the following result: for Banach spaces $X_1,dots,X_n,$ consider the direct sum,
        $$ X = bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i, $$
        equipped with the $p$-norm,
        $$ lVert (x_1,dots,x_n) rVert_{p} = left(lVert x_irVert_{X_i}^pright)^{1/p}. $$
        Then we can show that,
        $$ X^* cong bigoplus_{i=1}^n X_i^*, $$
        equipped with the $p^*$-norm $lVert cdot rVert_{p^*}$ defined similarly. Here the duality pairing is what you expect:
        $$ leftlangle (x_1,dots,x_n),(f_1,dots,f_n) rightrangle = sum_{i=1}^n langle x_i, f_i rangle. $$





        Now we can use the fact that,
        $$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d) cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu), $$
        equipped with the $p$-norm as above. Hence the duality result shows that,
        $$ L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^p(Omega,mathcal{A},mu)^* cong oplus_{i=1}^n L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu) cong L^{p^*}(Omega,mathcal{A},mu,mathbb R^d), $$
        as required (the sums are equipped with the $p^*$ norms here). Note this gives the same pairing as the one you described, and both approaches (direct vs using the above result) boil down to the same argument.







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        answered Jan 7 at 16:31









        ktoiktoi

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