If every sequence $(x_{n}) subset X$ and $(lambda_{n}) subset mathbb{R}$ we have $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$,...












4












$begingroup$



Let $(V,Vert cdot Vert)$ a normed vector space.



(a) Prove that if $A,B subset V$ with $A$ open, then $A + B$ is open.



(b) Is there disjoint open sets $A_{1},A_{2}$ for which there is no disjoint closed sets $F_{1},F_{2}$ such that $A_{1} subset F_{1}$ and $A_{2} subset F_{2}$?



(c) Prove that if $X subset V$ is bounded, then for every sequence $(x_{n}) subset X$ and $(lambda_{n}) subset mathbb{R}$ with $lim lambda_{n} = 0$ we have $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$. What about the converse?




My attempt.



(a) Let $A$ be an open set. So, $A + b = {a+b mid a in A}$ is translation, therefore, is open. But $displaystyle A + B = bigcup_{b in B}(A+b)$, then $A+B$ is open.



(b) Take $A_{1} = mathbb{R}_{>0}$ and $A_{2} = mathbb{R}_{<0}$, because $overline{A_{1}} = A_{1}cup{0}$ and $overline{A_{2}} = A_{2}cup{0}$



(c) If $(x_{n})$ is a sequence in $X$, then $(x_{n})$ is bounded. But
$$(x_{n}) = ((x_{1,n}),(x_{2,n}),...,(x_{k,n}))$$
where each $(x_{i,n})$ is a bounded sequence in $mathbb{R}$. Thus, $lim lambda_{n}x_{i,n} = 0$ for each $i$, then $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$.



The converse seems true, but I cannot prove. Can someone help me?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Don't you need $lambda_nto0$?
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Jan 4 at 22:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There are a couple issues with your part (c); one is your assumption that you can write $x_n$ in coordinates in this way (and why would you need to?), and second is that there is a quite large gap - some magic has happened when you say "Thus." What would happen if $lambda_n = 1$ for all $n$?
    $endgroup$
    – T. Bongers
    Jan 4 at 22:20












  • $begingroup$
    @SmileyCraft, oh, yes! I forgot to write!
    $endgroup$
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Jan 4 at 22:20






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For another issue, note that in part (b) you're implicitly assuming that $V = mathbb{R}$. This is supposed to be a general normed space, although your idea is on the right track.
    $endgroup$
    – T. Bongers
    Jan 4 at 22:21










  • $begingroup$
    @T.Bongers, thanks for the hint! I'll try to correct the mistakes.
    $endgroup$
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Jan 4 at 22:22
















4












$begingroup$



Let $(V,Vert cdot Vert)$ a normed vector space.



(a) Prove that if $A,B subset V$ with $A$ open, then $A + B$ is open.



(b) Is there disjoint open sets $A_{1},A_{2}$ for which there is no disjoint closed sets $F_{1},F_{2}$ such that $A_{1} subset F_{1}$ and $A_{2} subset F_{2}$?



(c) Prove that if $X subset V$ is bounded, then for every sequence $(x_{n}) subset X$ and $(lambda_{n}) subset mathbb{R}$ with $lim lambda_{n} = 0$ we have $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$. What about the converse?




My attempt.



(a) Let $A$ be an open set. So, $A + b = {a+b mid a in A}$ is translation, therefore, is open. But $displaystyle A + B = bigcup_{b in B}(A+b)$, then $A+B$ is open.



(b) Take $A_{1} = mathbb{R}_{>0}$ and $A_{2} = mathbb{R}_{<0}$, because $overline{A_{1}} = A_{1}cup{0}$ and $overline{A_{2}} = A_{2}cup{0}$



(c) If $(x_{n})$ is a sequence in $X$, then $(x_{n})$ is bounded. But
$$(x_{n}) = ((x_{1,n}),(x_{2,n}),...,(x_{k,n}))$$
where each $(x_{i,n})$ is a bounded sequence in $mathbb{R}$. Thus, $lim lambda_{n}x_{i,n} = 0$ for each $i$, then $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$.



The converse seems true, but I cannot prove. Can someone help me?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Don't you need $lambda_nto0$?
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Jan 4 at 22:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There are a couple issues with your part (c); one is your assumption that you can write $x_n$ in coordinates in this way (and why would you need to?), and second is that there is a quite large gap - some magic has happened when you say "Thus." What would happen if $lambda_n = 1$ for all $n$?
    $endgroup$
    – T. Bongers
    Jan 4 at 22:20












  • $begingroup$
    @SmileyCraft, oh, yes! I forgot to write!
    $endgroup$
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Jan 4 at 22:20






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For another issue, note that in part (b) you're implicitly assuming that $V = mathbb{R}$. This is supposed to be a general normed space, although your idea is on the right track.
    $endgroup$
    – T. Bongers
    Jan 4 at 22:21










  • $begingroup$
    @T.Bongers, thanks for the hint! I'll try to correct the mistakes.
    $endgroup$
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Jan 4 at 22:22














4












4








4


1



$begingroup$



Let $(V,Vert cdot Vert)$ a normed vector space.



(a) Prove that if $A,B subset V$ with $A$ open, then $A + B$ is open.



(b) Is there disjoint open sets $A_{1},A_{2}$ for which there is no disjoint closed sets $F_{1},F_{2}$ such that $A_{1} subset F_{1}$ and $A_{2} subset F_{2}$?



(c) Prove that if $X subset V$ is bounded, then for every sequence $(x_{n}) subset X$ and $(lambda_{n}) subset mathbb{R}$ with $lim lambda_{n} = 0$ we have $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$. What about the converse?




My attempt.



(a) Let $A$ be an open set. So, $A + b = {a+b mid a in A}$ is translation, therefore, is open. But $displaystyle A + B = bigcup_{b in B}(A+b)$, then $A+B$ is open.



(b) Take $A_{1} = mathbb{R}_{>0}$ and $A_{2} = mathbb{R}_{<0}$, because $overline{A_{1}} = A_{1}cup{0}$ and $overline{A_{2}} = A_{2}cup{0}$



(c) If $(x_{n})$ is a sequence in $X$, then $(x_{n})$ is bounded. But
$$(x_{n}) = ((x_{1,n}),(x_{2,n}),...,(x_{k,n}))$$
where each $(x_{i,n})$ is a bounded sequence in $mathbb{R}$. Thus, $lim lambda_{n}x_{i,n} = 0$ for each $i$, then $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$.



The converse seems true, but I cannot prove. Can someone help me?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Let $(V,Vert cdot Vert)$ a normed vector space.



(a) Prove that if $A,B subset V$ with $A$ open, then $A + B$ is open.



(b) Is there disjoint open sets $A_{1},A_{2}$ for which there is no disjoint closed sets $F_{1},F_{2}$ such that $A_{1} subset F_{1}$ and $A_{2} subset F_{2}$?



(c) Prove that if $X subset V$ is bounded, then for every sequence $(x_{n}) subset X$ and $(lambda_{n}) subset mathbb{R}$ with $lim lambda_{n} = 0$ we have $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$. What about the converse?




My attempt.



(a) Let $A$ be an open set. So, $A + b = {a+b mid a in A}$ is translation, therefore, is open. But $displaystyle A + B = bigcup_{b in B}(A+b)$, then $A+B$ is open.



(b) Take $A_{1} = mathbb{R}_{>0}$ and $A_{2} = mathbb{R}_{<0}$, because $overline{A_{1}} = A_{1}cup{0}$ and $overline{A_{2}} = A_{2}cup{0}$



(c) If $(x_{n})$ is a sequence in $X$, then $(x_{n})$ is bounded. But
$$(x_{n}) = ((x_{1,n}),(x_{2,n}),...,(x_{k,n}))$$
where each $(x_{i,n})$ is a bounded sequence in $mathbb{R}$. Thus, $lim lambda_{n}x_{i,n} = 0$ for each $i$, then $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$.



The converse seems true, but I cannot prove. Can someone help me?







general-topology metric-spaces






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 4 at 22:20







Lucas Corrêa

















asked Jan 4 at 22:13









Lucas CorrêaLucas Corrêa

1,5901421




1,5901421












  • $begingroup$
    Don't you need $lambda_nto0$?
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Jan 4 at 22:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There are a couple issues with your part (c); one is your assumption that you can write $x_n$ in coordinates in this way (and why would you need to?), and second is that there is a quite large gap - some magic has happened when you say "Thus." What would happen if $lambda_n = 1$ for all $n$?
    $endgroup$
    – T. Bongers
    Jan 4 at 22:20












  • $begingroup$
    @SmileyCraft, oh, yes! I forgot to write!
    $endgroup$
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Jan 4 at 22:20






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For another issue, note that in part (b) you're implicitly assuming that $V = mathbb{R}$. This is supposed to be a general normed space, although your idea is on the right track.
    $endgroup$
    – T. Bongers
    Jan 4 at 22:21










  • $begingroup$
    @T.Bongers, thanks for the hint! I'll try to correct the mistakes.
    $endgroup$
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Jan 4 at 22:22


















  • $begingroup$
    Don't you need $lambda_nto0$?
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Jan 4 at 22:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There are a couple issues with your part (c); one is your assumption that you can write $x_n$ in coordinates in this way (and why would you need to?), and second is that there is a quite large gap - some magic has happened when you say "Thus." What would happen if $lambda_n = 1$ for all $n$?
    $endgroup$
    – T. Bongers
    Jan 4 at 22:20












  • $begingroup$
    @SmileyCraft, oh, yes! I forgot to write!
    $endgroup$
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Jan 4 at 22:20






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For another issue, note that in part (b) you're implicitly assuming that $V = mathbb{R}$. This is supposed to be a general normed space, although your idea is on the right track.
    $endgroup$
    – T. Bongers
    Jan 4 at 22:21










  • $begingroup$
    @T.Bongers, thanks for the hint! I'll try to correct the mistakes.
    $endgroup$
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Jan 4 at 22:22
















$begingroup$
Don't you need $lambda_nto0$?
$endgroup$
– SmileyCraft
Jan 4 at 22:18




$begingroup$
Don't you need $lambda_nto0$?
$endgroup$
– SmileyCraft
Jan 4 at 22:18




1




1




$begingroup$
There are a couple issues with your part (c); one is your assumption that you can write $x_n$ in coordinates in this way (and why would you need to?), and second is that there is a quite large gap - some magic has happened when you say "Thus." What would happen if $lambda_n = 1$ for all $n$?
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:20






$begingroup$
There are a couple issues with your part (c); one is your assumption that you can write $x_n$ in coordinates in this way (and why would you need to?), and second is that there is a quite large gap - some magic has happened when you say "Thus." What would happen if $lambda_n = 1$ for all $n$?
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:20














$begingroup$
@SmileyCraft, oh, yes! I forgot to write!
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:20




$begingroup$
@SmileyCraft, oh, yes! I forgot to write!
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:20




1




1




$begingroup$
For another issue, note that in part (b) you're implicitly assuming that $V = mathbb{R}$. This is supposed to be a general normed space, although your idea is on the right track.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:21




$begingroup$
For another issue, note that in part (b) you're implicitly assuming that $V = mathbb{R}$. This is supposed to be a general normed space, although your idea is on the right track.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:21












$begingroup$
@T.Bongers, thanks for the hint! I'll try to correct the mistakes.
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:22




$begingroup$
@T.Bongers, thanks for the hint! I'll try to correct the mistakes.
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:22










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

Your part (a) is fine, assuming that you know translation is continuous.



Your part (b) is on the right track, but it assumes that $V$ is the continuum, whereas it should be a normed vector space. You have the right idea of separating two sets by a very small set, but you shouldn't rely on coordinates (since you don't have any coordinates...). Use the norm instead.



Your part (c) has a similar issue: unless you're in a finite dimensional space, there is neither reason nor justification for writing the sequence in coordinates. Again, you need to be using the norm. Notice that



$$|lambda_n x_n| = |lambda_n| cdot |x_n| le |lambda_n| sup_{x in X} |x| to 0.$$



The converse is in fact true, and can be handled similarly; choose an unbounded sequence ${x_n}$ and craft $lambda_n$ depending on $x_n$ so that $|lambda_n x_n| notto 0$. Constant norm works.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Awesome, I got it! But for (b), I have some troubles. I thinking in $A_{1}, A_{2}$ such that $partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2} neq emptyset$ and $Vsetminus(A_{1}cup A_{2}) = partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2}$. How can I ensure that $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$ exist? Or how can I make explicit $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$?
    $endgroup$
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Jan 4 at 22:38






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For your attempt, you used "positive" and "negative" as the separation condition. This doesn't work for the norm, because you cannot have a negative norm value... but there's no need to cut at zero. Try cutting somewhere else.
    $endgroup$
    – T. Bongers
    Jan 4 at 22:39



















1












$begingroup$

The converse is true, we'll prove it by contraposition:



Assume that $X$ is unbounded. Hence for every $ninmathbb{N}$ exists $x_n in X$ such that $|x_n| ge n$. Consider the sequence $(lambda_n)_n = left(frac1nright)_n$. We have $lim_{ntoinfty} lambda_n = 0$ but
$ |lambda_nx_n| ge 1, forall ninmathbb{N}$ so it cannot converge to $0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    For the converse: suppose $X$ is not bounded. Then it contains some sequence $(x_n)$ such that $(|x_n|)toinfty$ (take $x_n$ to be an example given by the negation of the definition of "bounded" with the constant set to $n$). Take $lambda_n = frac{1}{|x_n|}$. Then $(lambda_n)to 0$, but $(lambda_nx_n)notto 0$, since $(|lambda_nx_n|) = (1) notto 0$. Thus, taking the contrapositive, we have the converse (NB: you've got a bit missing out of the contrapositive you've given in the title: you've dropped the $limlambda_n = 0$ bit).






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      1












      $begingroup$

      Your approach to part (a) is correct; to be more explicit, you could show why $A+b$ is open.



      You have the right idea for part (b), but it needs to be stated a bit more generally. Let $A_1$ and $A_2$ be disjoint open balls that both have some point $z$ in their closure. Then if $F_1$, $F_2$ are closed sets containing $A_1$, $A_2$, respectively, we have $zin F_1$ and $zin F_2$ since $F_1supset overline{A_1}$ and $F_2supsetoverline{A_2}$, so $F_1$ and $F_2$ cannot be disjoint. To construct such $A_1$ and $A_2$, let $x,y$ be distinct points in $V$ with $|x|=|y|$ and consider the open balls centered at $x$ and $y$ with radius $frac 12 |x-y|$. Then the point $frac12(x+y)$ is in the closure of both of these balls.



      For part (c) I will defer to the accepted answer.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$













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        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes








        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        2












        $begingroup$

        Your part (a) is fine, assuming that you know translation is continuous.



        Your part (b) is on the right track, but it assumes that $V$ is the continuum, whereas it should be a normed vector space. You have the right idea of separating two sets by a very small set, but you shouldn't rely on coordinates (since you don't have any coordinates...). Use the norm instead.



        Your part (c) has a similar issue: unless you're in a finite dimensional space, there is neither reason nor justification for writing the sequence in coordinates. Again, you need to be using the norm. Notice that



        $$|lambda_n x_n| = |lambda_n| cdot |x_n| le |lambda_n| sup_{x in X} |x| to 0.$$



        The converse is in fact true, and can be handled similarly; choose an unbounded sequence ${x_n}$ and craft $lambda_n$ depending on $x_n$ so that $|lambda_n x_n| notto 0$. Constant norm works.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$













        • $begingroup$
          Awesome, I got it! But for (b), I have some troubles. I thinking in $A_{1}, A_{2}$ such that $partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2} neq emptyset$ and $Vsetminus(A_{1}cup A_{2}) = partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2}$. How can I ensure that $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$ exist? Or how can I make explicit $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$?
          $endgroup$
          – Lucas Corrêa
          Jan 4 at 22:38






        • 1




          $begingroup$
          For your attempt, you used "positive" and "negative" as the separation condition. This doesn't work for the norm, because you cannot have a negative norm value... but there's no need to cut at zero. Try cutting somewhere else.
          $endgroup$
          – T. Bongers
          Jan 4 at 22:39
















        2












        $begingroup$

        Your part (a) is fine, assuming that you know translation is continuous.



        Your part (b) is on the right track, but it assumes that $V$ is the continuum, whereas it should be a normed vector space. You have the right idea of separating two sets by a very small set, but you shouldn't rely on coordinates (since you don't have any coordinates...). Use the norm instead.



        Your part (c) has a similar issue: unless you're in a finite dimensional space, there is neither reason nor justification for writing the sequence in coordinates. Again, you need to be using the norm. Notice that



        $$|lambda_n x_n| = |lambda_n| cdot |x_n| le |lambda_n| sup_{x in X} |x| to 0.$$



        The converse is in fact true, and can be handled similarly; choose an unbounded sequence ${x_n}$ and craft $lambda_n$ depending on $x_n$ so that $|lambda_n x_n| notto 0$. Constant norm works.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$













        • $begingroup$
          Awesome, I got it! But for (b), I have some troubles. I thinking in $A_{1}, A_{2}$ such that $partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2} neq emptyset$ and $Vsetminus(A_{1}cup A_{2}) = partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2}$. How can I ensure that $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$ exist? Or how can I make explicit $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$?
          $endgroup$
          – Lucas Corrêa
          Jan 4 at 22:38






        • 1




          $begingroup$
          For your attempt, you used "positive" and "negative" as the separation condition. This doesn't work for the norm, because you cannot have a negative norm value... but there's no need to cut at zero. Try cutting somewhere else.
          $endgroup$
          – T. Bongers
          Jan 4 at 22:39














        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        Your part (a) is fine, assuming that you know translation is continuous.



        Your part (b) is on the right track, but it assumes that $V$ is the continuum, whereas it should be a normed vector space. You have the right idea of separating two sets by a very small set, but you shouldn't rely on coordinates (since you don't have any coordinates...). Use the norm instead.



        Your part (c) has a similar issue: unless you're in a finite dimensional space, there is neither reason nor justification for writing the sequence in coordinates. Again, you need to be using the norm. Notice that



        $$|lambda_n x_n| = |lambda_n| cdot |x_n| le |lambda_n| sup_{x in X} |x| to 0.$$



        The converse is in fact true, and can be handled similarly; choose an unbounded sequence ${x_n}$ and craft $lambda_n$ depending on $x_n$ so that $|lambda_n x_n| notto 0$. Constant norm works.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Your part (a) is fine, assuming that you know translation is continuous.



        Your part (b) is on the right track, but it assumes that $V$ is the continuum, whereas it should be a normed vector space. You have the right idea of separating two sets by a very small set, but you shouldn't rely on coordinates (since you don't have any coordinates...). Use the norm instead.



        Your part (c) has a similar issue: unless you're in a finite dimensional space, there is neither reason nor justification for writing the sequence in coordinates. Again, you need to be using the norm. Notice that



        $$|lambda_n x_n| = |lambda_n| cdot |x_n| le |lambda_n| sup_{x in X} |x| to 0.$$



        The converse is in fact true, and can be handled similarly; choose an unbounded sequence ${x_n}$ and craft $lambda_n$ depending on $x_n$ so that $|lambda_n x_n| notto 0$. Constant norm works.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 4 at 22:28









        T. BongersT. Bongers

        23.5k54762




        23.5k54762












        • $begingroup$
          Awesome, I got it! But for (b), I have some troubles. I thinking in $A_{1}, A_{2}$ such that $partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2} neq emptyset$ and $Vsetminus(A_{1}cup A_{2}) = partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2}$. How can I ensure that $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$ exist? Or how can I make explicit $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$?
          $endgroup$
          – Lucas Corrêa
          Jan 4 at 22:38






        • 1




          $begingroup$
          For your attempt, you used "positive" and "negative" as the separation condition. This doesn't work for the norm, because you cannot have a negative norm value... but there's no need to cut at zero. Try cutting somewhere else.
          $endgroup$
          – T. Bongers
          Jan 4 at 22:39


















        • $begingroup$
          Awesome, I got it! But for (b), I have some troubles. I thinking in $A_{1}, A_{2}$ such that $partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2} neq emptyset$ and $Vsetminus(A_{1}cup A_{2}) = partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2}$. How can I ensure that $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$ exist? Or how can I make explicit $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$?
          $endgroup$
          – Lucas Corrêa
          Jan 4 at 22:38






        • 1




          $begingroup$
          For your attempt, you used "positive" and "negative" as the separation condition. This doesn't work for the norm, because you cannot have a negative norm value... but there's no need to cut at zero. Try cutting somewhere else.
          $endgroup$
          – T. Bongers
          Jan 4 at 22:39
















        $begingroup$
        Awesome, I got it! But for (b), I have some troubles. I thinking in $A_{1}, A_{2}$ such that $partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2} neq emptyset$ and $Vsetminus(A_{1}cup A_{2}) = partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2}$. How can I ensure that $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$ exist? Or how can I make explicit $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$?
        $endgroup$
        – Lucas Corrêa
        Jan 4 at 22:38




        $begingroup$
        Awesome, I got it! But for (b), I have some troubles. I thinking in $A_{1}, A_{2}$ such that $partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2} neq emptyset$ and $Vsetminus(A_{1}cup A_{2}) = partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2}$. How can I ensure that $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$ exist? Or how can I make explicit $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$?
        $endgroup$
        – Lucas Corrêa
        Jan 4 at 22:38




        1




        1




        $begingroup$
        For your attempt, you used "positive" and "negative" as the separation condition. This doesn't work for the norm, because you cannot have a negative norm value... but there's no need to cut at zero. Try cutting somewhere else.
        $endgroup$
        – T. Bongers
        Jan 4 at 22:39




        $begingroup$
        For your attempt, you used "positive" and "negative" as the separation condition. This doesn't work for the norm, because you cannot have a negative norm value... but there's no need to cut at zero. Try cutting somewhere else.
        $endgroup$
        – T. Bongers
        Jan 4 at 22:39











        1












        $begingroup$

        The converse is true, we'll prove it by contraposition:



        Assume that $X$ is unbounded. Hence for every $ninmathbb{N}$ exists $x_n in X$ such that $|x_n| ge n$. Consider the sequence $(lambda_n)_n = left(frac1nright)_n$. We have $lim_{ntoinfty} lambda_n = 0$ but
        $ |lambda_nx_n| ge 1, forall ninmathbb{N}$ so it cannot converge to $0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$


















          1












          $begingroup$

          The converse is true, we'll prove it by contraposition:



          Assume that $X$ is unbounded. Hence for every $ninmathbb{N}$ exists $x_n in X$ such that $|x_n| ge n$. Consider the sequence $(lambda_n)_n = left(frac1nright)_n$. We have $lim_{ntoinfty} lambda_n = 0$ but
          $ |lambda_nx_n| ge 1, forall ninmathbb{N}$ so it cannot converge to $0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$
















            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            The converse is true, we'll prove it by contraposition:



            Assume that $X$ is unbounded. Hence for every $ninmathbb{N}$ exists $x_n in X$ such that $|x_n| ge n$. Consider the sequence $(lambda_n)_n = left(frac1nright)_n$. We have $lim_{ntoinfty} lambda_n = 0$ but
            $ |lambda_nx_n| ge 1, forall ninmathbb{N}$ so it cannot converge to $0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            The converse is true, we'll prove it by contraposition:



            Assume that $X$ is unbounded. Hence for every $ninmathbb{N}$ exists $x_n in X$ such that $|x_n| ge n$. Consider the sequence $(lambda_n)_n = left(frac1nright)_n$. We have $lim_{ntoinfty} lambda_n = 0$ but
            $ |lambda_nx_n| ge 1, forall ninmathbb{N}$ so it cannot converge to $0$.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Jan 4 at 22:28









            mechanodroidmechanodroid

            28.7k62548




            28.7k62548























                1












                $begingroup$

                For the converse: suppose $X$ is not bounded. Then it contains some sequence $(x_n)$ such that $(|x_n|)toinfty$ (take $x_n$ to be an example given by the negation of the definition of "bounded" with the constant set to $n$). Take $lambda_n = frac{1}{|x_n|}$. Then $(lambda_n)to 0$, but $(lambda_nx_n)notto 0$, since $(|lambda_nx_n|) = (1) notto 0$. Thus, taking the contrapositive, we have the converse (NB: you've got a bit missing out of the contrapositive you've given in the title: you've dropped the $limlambda_n = 0$ bit).






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  1












                  $begingroup$

                  For the converse: suppose $X$ is not bounded. Then it contains some sequence $(x_n)$ such that $(|x_n|)toinfty$ (take $x_n$ to be an example given by the negation of the definition of "bounded" with the constant set to $n$). Take $lambda_n = frac{1}{|x_n|}$. Then $(lambda_n)to 0$, but $(lambda_nx_n)notto 0$, since $(|lambda_nx_n|) = (1) notto 0$. Thus, taking the contrapositive, we have the converse (NB: you've got a bit missing out of the contrapositive you've given in the title: you've dropped the $limlambda_n = 0$ bit).






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















                    1












                    1








                    1





                    $begingroup$

                    For the converse: suppose $X$ is not bounded. Then it contains some sequence $(x_n)$ such that $(|x_n|)toinfty$ (take $x_n$ to be an example given by the negation of the definition of "bounded" with the constant set to $n$). Take $lambda_n = frac{1}{|x_n|}$. Then $(lambda_n)to 0$, but $(lambda_nx_n)notto 0$, since $(|lambda_nx_n|) = (1) notto 0$. Thus, taking the contrapositive, we have the converse (NB: you've got a bit missing out of the contrapositive you've given in the title: you've dropped the $limlambda_n = 0$ bit).






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    For the converse: suppose $X$ is not bounded. Then it contains some sequence $(x_n)$ such that $(|x_n|)toinfty$ (take $x_n$ to be an example given by the negation of the definition of "bounded" with the constant set to $n$). Take $lambda_n = frac{1}{|x_n|}$. Then $(lambda_n)to 0$, but $(lambda_nx_n)notto 0$, since $(|lambda_nx_n|) = (1) notto 0$. Thus, taking the contrapositive, we have the converse (NB: you've got a bit missing out of the contrapositive you've given in the title: you've dropped the $limlambda_n = 0$ bit).







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Jan 4 at 22:29









                    user3482749user3482749

                    4,296919




                    4,296919























                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        Your approach to part (a) is correct; to be more explicit, you could show why $A+b$ is open.



                        You have the right idea for part (b), but it needs to be stated a bit more generally. Let $A_1$ and $A_2$ be disjoint open balls that both have some point $z$ in their closure. Then if $F_1$, $F_2$ are closed sets containing $A_1$, $A_2$, respectively, we have $zin F_1$ and $zin F_2$ since $F_1supset overline{A_1}$ and $F_2supsetoverline{A_2}$, so $F_1$ and $F_2$ cannot be disjoint. To construct such $A_1$ and $A_2$, let $x,y$ be distinct points in $V$ with $|x|=|y|$ and consider the open balls centered at $x$ and $y$ with radius $frac 12 |x-y|$. Then the point $frac12(x+y)$ is in the closure of both of these balls.



                        For part (c) I will defer to the accepted answer.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$


















                          1












                          $begingroup$

                          Your approach to part (a) is correct; to be more explicit, you could show why $A+b$ is open.



                          You have the right idea for part (b), but it needs to be stated a bit more generally. Let $A_1$ and $A_2$ be disjoint open balls that both have some point $z$ in their closure. Then if $F_1$, $F_2$ are closed sets containing $A_1$, $A_2$, respectively, we have $zin F_1$ and $zin F_2$ since $F_1supset overline{A_1}$ and $F_2supsetoverline{A_2}$, so $F_1$ and $F_2$ cannot be disjoint. To construct such $A_1$ and $A_2$, let $x,y$ be distinct points in $V$ with $|x|=|y|$ and consider the open balls centered at $x$ and $y$ with radius $frac 12 |x-y|$. Then the point $frac12(x+y)$ is in the closure of both of these balls.



                          For part (c) I will defer to the accepted answer.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$
















                            1












                            1








                            1





                            $begingroup$

                            Your approach to part (a) is correct; to be more explicit, you could show why $A+b$ is open.



                            You have the right idea for part (b), but it needs to be stated a bit more generally. Let $A_1$ and $A_2$ be disjoint open balls that both have some point $z$ in their closure. Then if $F_1$, $F_2$ are closed sets containing $A_1$, $A_2$, respectively, we have $zin F_1$ and $zin F_2$ since $F_1supset overline{A_1}$ and $F_2supsetoverline{A_2}$, so $F_1$ and $F_2$ cannot be disjoint. To construct such $A_1$ and $A_2$, let $x,y$ be distinct points in $V$ with $|x|=|y|$ and consider the open balls centered at $x$ and $y$ with radius $frac 12 |x-y|$. Then the point $frac12(x+y)$ is in the closure of both of these balls.



                            For part (c) I will defer to the accepted answer.






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            Your approach to part (a) is correct; to be more explicit, you could show why $A+b$ is open.



                            You have the right idea for part (b), but it needs to be stated a bit more generally. Let $A_1$ and $A_2$ be disjoint open balls that both have some point $z$ in their closure. Then if $F_1$, $F_2$ are closed sets containing $A_1$, $A_2$, respectively, we have $zin F_1$ and $zin F_2$ since $F_1supset overline{A_1}$ and $F_2supsetoverline{A_2}$, so $F_1$ and $F_2$ cannot be disjoint. To construct such $A_1$ and $A_2$, let $x,y$ be distinct points in $V$ with $|x|=|y|$ and consider the open balls centered at $x$ and $y$ with radius $frac 12 |x-y|$. Then the point $frac12(x+y)$ is in the closure of both of these balls.



                            For part (c) I will defer to the accepted answer.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Jan 4 at 22:40









                            Math1000Math1000

                            19.3k31745




                            19.3k31745






























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