If every sequence $(x_{n}) subset X$ and $(lambda_{n}) subset mathbb{R}$ we have $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$,...
$begingroup$
Let $(V,Vert cdot Vert)$ a normed vector space.
(a) Prove that if $A,B subset V$ with $A$ open, then $A + B$ is open.
(b) Is there disjoint open sets $A_{1},A_{2}$ for which there is no disjoint closed sets $F_{1},F_{2}$ such that $A_{1} subset F_{1}$ and $A_{2} subset F_{2}$?
(c) Prove that if $X subset V$ is bounded, then for every sequence $(x_{n}) subset X$ and $(lambda_{n}) subset mathbb{R}$ with $lim lambda_{n} = 0$ we have $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$. What about the converse?
My attempt.
(a) Let $A$ be an open set. So, $A + b = {a+b mid a in A}$ is translation, therefore, is open. But $displaystyle A + B = bigcup_{b in B}(A+b)$, then $A+B$ is open.
(b) Take $A_{1} = mathbb{R}_{>0}$ and $A_{2} = mathbb{R}_{<0}$, because $overline{A_{1}} = A_{1}cup{0}$ and $overline{A_{2}} = A_{2}cup{0}$
(c) If $(x_{n})$ is a sequence in $X$, then $(x_{n})$ is bounded. But
$$(x_{n}) = ((x_{1,n}),(x_{2,n}),...,(x_{k,n}))$$
where each $(x_{i,n})$ is a bounded sequence in $mathbb{R}$. Thus, $lim lambda_{n}x_{i,n} = 0$ for each $i$, then $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$.
The converse seems true, but I cannot prove. Can someone help me?
general-topology metric-spaces
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $(V,Vert cdot Vert)$ a normed vector space.
(a) Prove that if $A,B subset V$ with $A$ open, then $A + B$ is open.
(b) Is there disjoint open sets $A_{1},A_{2}$ for which there is no disjoint closed sets $F_{1},F_{2}$ such that $A_{1} subset F_{1}$ and $A_{2} subset F_{2}$?
(c) Prove that if $X subset V$ is bounded, then for every sequence $(x_{n}) subset X$ and $(lambda_{n}) subset mathbb{R}$ with $lim lambda_{n} = 0$ we have $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$. What about the converse?
My attempt.
(a) Let $A$ be an open set. So, $A + b = {a+b mid a in A}$ is translation, therefore, is open. But $displaystyle A + B = bigcup_{b in B}(A+b)$, then $A+B$ is open.
(b) Take $A_{1} = mathbb{R}_{>0}$ and $A_{2} = mathbb{R}_{<0}$, because $overline{A_{1}} = A_{1}cup{0}$ and $overline{A_{2}} = A_{2}cup{0}$
(c) If $(x_{n})$ is a sequence in $X$, then $(x_{n})$ is bounded. But
$$(x_{n}) = ((x_{1,n}),(x_{2,n}),...,(x_{k,n}))$$
where each $(x_{i,n})$ is a bounded sequence in $mathbb{R}$. Thus, $lim lambda_{n}x_{i,n} = 0$ for each $i$, then $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$.
The converse seems true, but I cannot prove. Can someone help me?
general-topology metric-spaces
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Don't you need $lambda_nto0$?
$endgroup$
– SmileyCraft
Jan 4 at 22:18
1
$begingroup$
There are a couple issues with your part (c); one is your assumption that you can write $x_n$ in coordinates in this way (and why would you need to?), and second is that there is a quite large gap - some magic has happened when you say "Thus." What would happen if $lambda_n = 1$ for all $n$?
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:20
$begingroup$
@SmileyCraft, oh, yes! I forgot to write!
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:20
1
$begingroup$
For another issue, note that in part (b) you're implicitly assuming that $V = mathbb{R}$. This is supposed to be a general normed space, although your idea is on the right track.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:21
$begingroup$
@T.Bongers, thanks for the hint! I'll try to correct the mistakes.
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:22
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $(V,Vert cdot Vert)$ a normed vector space.
(a) Prove that if $A,B subset V$ with $A$ open, then $A + B$ is open.
(b) Is there disjoint open sets $A_{1},A_{2}$ for which there is no disjoint closed sets $F_{1},F_{2}$ such that $A_{1} subset F_{1}$ and $A_{2} subset F_{2}$?
(c) Prove that if $X subset V$ is bounded, then for every sequence $(x_{n}) subset X$ and $(lambda_{n}) subset mathbb{R}$ with $lim lambda_{n} = 0$ we have $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$. What about the converse?
My attempt.
(a) Let $A$ be an open set. So, $A + b = {a+b mid a in A}$ is translation, therefore, is open. But $displaystyle A + B = bigcup_{b in B}(A+b)$, then $A+B$ is open.
(b) Take $A_{1} = mathbb{R}_{>0}$ and $A_{2} = mathbb{R}_{<0}$, because $overline{A_{1}} = A_{1}cup{0}$ and $overline{A_{2}} = A_{2}cup{0}$
(c) If $(x_{n})$ is a sequence in $X$, then $(x_{n})$ is bounded. But
$$(x_{n}) = ((x_{1,n}),(x_{2,n}),...,(x_{k,n}))$$
where each $(x_{i,n})$ is a bounded sequence in $mathbb{R}$. Thus, $lim lambda_{n}x_{i,n} = 0$ for each $i$, then $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$.
The converse seems true, but I cannot prove. Can someone help me?
general-topology metric-spaces
$endgroup$
Let $(V,Vert cdot Vert)$ a normed vector space.
(a) Prove that if $A,B subset V$ with $A$ open, then $A + B$ is open.
(b) Is there disjoint open sets $A_{1},A_{2}$ for which there is no disjoint closed sets $F_{1},F_{2}$ such that $A_{1} subset F_{1}$ and $A_{2} subset F_{2}$?
(c) Prove that if $X subset V$ is bounded, then for every sequence $(x_{n}) subset X$ and $(lambda_{n}) subset mathbb{R}$ with $lim lambda_{n} = 0$ we have $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$. What about the converse?
My attempt.
(a) Let $A$ be an open set. So, $A + b = {a+b mid a in A}$ is translation, therefore, is open. But $displaystyle A + B = bigcup_{b in B}(A+b)$, then $A+B$ is open.
(b) Take $A_{1} = mathbb{R}_{>0}$ and $A_{2} = mathbb{R}_{<0}$, because $overline{A_{1}} = A_{1}cup{0}$ and $overline{A_{2}} = A_{2}cup{0}$
(c) If $(x_{n})$ is a sequence in $X$, then $(x_{n})$ is bounded. But
$$(x_{n}) = ((x_{1,n}),(x_{2,n}),...,(x_{k,n}))$$
where each $(x_{i,n})$ is a bounded sequence in $mathbb{R}$. Thus, $lim lambda_{n}x_{i,n} = 0$ for each $i$, then $lim lambda_{n}x_{n} = 0$.
The converse seems true, but I cannot prove. Can someone help me?
general-topology metric-spaces
general-topology metric-spaces
edited Jan 4 at 22:20
Lucas Corrêa
asked Jan 4 at 22:13
Lucas CorrêaLucas Corrêa
1,5901421
1,5901421
$begingroup$
Don't you need $lambda_nto0$?
$endgroup$
– SmileyCraft
Jan 4 at 22:18
1
$begingroup$
There are a couple issues with your part (c); one is your assumption that you can write $x_n$ in coordinates in this way (and why would you need to?), and second is that there is a quite large gap - some magic has happened when you say "Thus." What would happen if $lambda_n = 1$ for all $n$?
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:20
$begingroup$
@SmileyCraft, oh, yes! I forgot to write!
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:20
1
$begingroup$
For another issue, note that in part (b) you're implicitly assuming that $V = mathbb{R}$. This is supposed to be a general normed space, although your idea is on the right track.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:21
$begingroup$
@T.Bongers, thanks for the hint! I'll try to correct the mistakes.
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:22
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Don't you need $lambda_nto0$?
$endgroup$
– SmileyCraft
Jan 4 at 22:18
1
$begingroup$
There are a couple issues with your part (c); one is your assumption that you can write $x_n$ in coordinates in this way (and why would you need to?), and second is that there is a quite large gap - some magic has happened when you say "Thus." What would happen if $lambda_n = 1$ for all $n$?
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:20
$begingroup$
@SmileyCraft, oh, yes! I forgot to write!
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:20
1
$begingroup$
For another issue, note that in part (b) you're implicitly assuming that $V = mathbb{R}$. This is supposed to be a general normed space, although your idea is on the right track.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:21
$begingroup$
@T.Bongers, thanks for the hint! I'll try to correct the mistakes.
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:22
$begingroup$
Don't you need $lambda_nto0$?
$endgroup$
– SmileyCraft
Jan 4 at 22:18
$begingroup$
Don't you need $lambda_nto0$?
$endgroup$
– SmileyCraft
Jan 4 at 22:18
1
1
$begingroup$
There are a couple issues with your part (c); one is your assumption that you can write $x_n$ in coordinates in this way (and why would you need to?), and second is that there is a quite large gap - some magic has happened when you say "Thus." What would happen if $lambda_n = 1$ for all $n$?
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:20
$begingroup$
There are a couple issues with your part (c); one is your assumption that you can write $x_n$ in coordinates in this way (and why would you need to?), and second is that there is a quite large gap - some magic has happened when you say "Thus." What would happen if $lambda_n = 1$ for all $n$?
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:20
$begingroup$
@SmileyCraft, oh, yes! I forgot to write!
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:20
$begingroup$
@SmileyCraft, oh, yes! I forgot to write!
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:20
1
1
$begingroup$
For another issue, note that in part (b) you're implicitly assuming that $V = mathbb{R}$. This is supposed to be a general normed space, although your idea is on the right track.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:21
$begingroup$
For another issue, note that in part (b) you're implicitly assuming that $V = mathbb{R}$. This is supposed to be a general normed space, although your idea is on the right track.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:21
$begingroup$
@T.Bongers, thanks for the hint! I'll try to correct the mistakes.
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:22
$begingroup$
@T.Bongers, thanks for the hint! I'll try to correct the mistakes.
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:22
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Your part (a) is fine, assuming that you know translation is continuous.
Your part (b) is on the right track, but it assumes that $V$ is the continuum, whereas it should be a normed vector space. You have the right idea of separating two sets by a very small set, but you shouldn't rely on coordinates (since you don't have any coordinates...). Use the norm instead.
Your part (c) has a similar issue: unless you're in a finite dimensional space, there is neither reason nor justification for writing the sequence in coordinates. Again, you need to be using the norm. Notice that
$$|lambda_n x_n| = |lambda_n| cdot |x_n| le |lambda_n| sup_{x in X} |x| to 0.$$
The converse is in fact true, and can be handled similarly; choose an unbounded sequence ${x_n}$ and craft $lambda_n$ depending on $x_n$ so that $|lambda_n x_n| notto 0$. Constant norm works.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Awesome, I got it! But for (b), I have some troubles. I thinking in $A_{1}, A_{2}$ such that $partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2} neq emptyset$ and $Vsetminus(A_{1}cup A_{2}) = partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2}$. How can I ensure that $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$ exist? Or how can I make explicit $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$?
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:38
1
$begingroup$
For your attempt, you used "positive" and "negative" as the separation condition. This doesn't work for the norm, because you cannot have a negative norm value... but there's no need to cut at zero. Try cutting somewhere else.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:39
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The converse is true, we'll prove it by contraposition:
Assume that $X$ is unbounded. Hence for every $ninmathbb{N}$ exists $x_n in X$ such that $|x_n| ge n$. Consider the sequence $(lambda_n)_n = left(frac1nright)_n$. We have $lim_{ntoinfty} lambda_n = 0$ but
$ |lambda_nx_n| ge 1, forall ninmathbb{N}$ so it cannot converge to $0$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For the converse: suppose $X$ is not bounded. Then it contains some sequence $(x_n)$ such that $(|x_n|)toinfty$ (take $x_n$ to be an example given by the negation of the definition of "bounded" with the constant set to $n$). Take $lambda_n = frac{1}{|x_n|}$. Then $(lambda_n)to 0$, but $(lambda_nx_n)notto 0$, since $(|lambda_nx_n|) = (1) notto 0$. Thus, taking the contrapositive, we have the converse (NB: you've got a bit missing out of the contrapositive you've given in the title: you've dropped the $limlambda_n = 0$ bit).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Your approach to part (a) is correct; to be more explicit, you could show why $A+b$ is open.
You have the right idea for part (b), but it needs to be stated a bit more generally. Let $A_1$ and $A_2$ be disjoint open balls that both have some point $z$ in their closure. Then if $F_1$, $F_2$ are closed sets containing $A_1$, $A_2$, respectively, we have $zin F_1$ and $zin F_2$ since $F_1supset overline{A_1}$ and $F_2supsetoverline{A_2}$, so $F_1$ and $F_2$ cannot be disjoint. To construct such $A_1$ and $A_2$, let $x,y$ be distinct points in $V$ with $|x|=|y|$ and consider the open balls centered at $x$ and $y$ with radius $frac 12 |x-y|$. Then the point $frac12(x+y)$ is in the closure of both of these balls.
For part (c) I will defer to the accepted answer.
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add a comment |
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Your part (a) is fine, assuming that you know translation is continuous.
Your part (b) is on the right track, but it assumes that $V$ is the continuum, whereas it should be a normed vector space. You have the right idea of separating two sets by a very small set, but you shouldn't rely on coordinates (since you don't have any coordinates...). Use the norm instead.
Your part (c) has a similar issue: unless you're in a finite dimensional space, there is neither reason nor justification for writing the sequence in coordinates. Again, you need to be using the norm. Notice that
$$|lambda_n x_n| = |lambda_n| cdot |x_n| le |lambda_n| sup_{x in X} |x| to 0.$$
The converse is in fact true, and can be handled similarly; choose an unbounded sequence ${x_n}$ and craft $lambda_n$ depending on $x_n$ so that $|lambda_n x_n| notto 0$. Constant norm works.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Awesome, I got it! But for (b), I have some troubles. I thinking in $A_{1}, A_{2}$ such that $partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2} neq emptyset$ and $Vsetminus(A_{1}cup A_{2}) = partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2}$. How can I ensure that $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$ exist? Or how can I make explicit $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$?
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:38
1
$begingroup$
For your attempt, you used "positive" and "negative" as the separation condition. This doesn't work for the norm, because you cannot have a negative norm value... but there's no need to cut at zero. Try cutting somewhere else.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:39
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Your part (a) is fine, assuming that you know translation is continuous.
Your part (b) is on the right track, but it assumes that $V$ is the continuum, whereas it should be a normed vector space. You have the right idea of separating two sets by a very small set, but you shouldn't rely on coordinates (since you don't have any coordinates...). Use the norm instead.
Your part (c) has a similar issue: unless you're in a finite dimensional space, there is neither reason nor justification for writing the sequence in coordinates. Again, you need to be using the norm. Notice that
$$|lambda_n x_n| = |lambda_n| cdot |x_n| le |lambda_n| sup_{x in X} |x| to 0.$$
The converse is in fact true, and can be handled similarly; choose an unbounded sequence ${x_n}$ and craft $lambda_n$ depending on $x_n$ so that $|lambda_n x_n| notto 0$. Constant norm works.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Awesome, I got it! But for (b), I have some troubles. I thinking in $A_{1}, A_{2}$ such that $partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2} neq emptyset$ and $Vsetminus(A_{1}cup A_{2}) = partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2}$. How can I ensure that $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$ exist? Or how can I make explicit $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$?
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:38
1
$begingroup$
For your attempt, you used "positive" and "negative" as the separation condition. This doesn't work for the norm, because you cannot have a negative norm value... but there's no need to cut at zero. Try cutting somewhere else.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:39
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Your part (a) is fine, assuming that you know translation is continuous.
Your part (b) is on the right track, but it assumes that $V$ is the continuum, whereas it should be a normed vector space. You have the right idea of separating two sets by a very small set, but you shouldn't rely on coordinates (since you don't have any coordinates...). Use the norm instead.
Your part (c) has a similar issue: unless you're in a finite dimensional space, there is neither reason nor justification for writing the sequence in coordinates. Again, you need to be using the norm. Notice that
$$|lambda_n x_n| = |lambda_n| cdot |x_n| le |lambda_n| sup_{x in X} |x| to 0.$$
The converse is in fact true, and can be handled similarly; choose an unbounded sequence ${x_n}$ and craft $lambda_n$ depending on $x_n$ so that $|lambda_n x_n| notto 0$. Constant norm works.
$endgroup$
Your part (a) is fine, assuming that you know translation is continuous.
Your part (b) is on the right track, but it assumes that $V$ is the continuum, whereas it should be a normed vector space. You have the right idea of separating two sets by a very small set, but you shouldn't rely on coordinates (since you don't have any coordinates...). Use the norm instead.
Your part (c) has a similar issue: unless you're in a finite dimensional space, there is neither reason nor justification for writing the sequence in coordinates. Again, you need to be using the norm. Notice that
$$|lambda_n x_n| = |lambda_n| cdot |x_n| le |lambda_n| sup_{x in X} |x| to 0.$$
The converse is in fact true, and can be handled similarly; choose an unbounded sequence ${x_n}$ and craft $lambda_n$ depending on $x_n$ so that $|lambda_n x_n| notto 0$. Constant norm works.
answered Jan 4 at 22:28
T. BongersT. Bongers
23.5k54762
23.5k54762
$begingroup$
Awesome, I got it! But for (b), I have some troubles. I thinking in $A_{1}, A_{2}$ such that $partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2} neq emptyset$ and $Vsetminus(A_{1}cup A_{2}) = partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2}$. How can I ensure that $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$ exist? Or how can I make explicit $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$?
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:38
1
$begingroup$
For your attempt, you used "positive" and "negative" as the separation condition. This doesn't work for the norm, because you cannot have a negative norm value... but there's no need to cut at zero. Try cutting somewhere else.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:39
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Awesome, I got it! But for (b), I have some troubles. I thinking in $A_{1}, A_{2}$ such that $partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2} neq emptyset$ and $Vsetminus(A_{1}cup A_{2}) = partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2}$. How can I ensure that $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$ exist? Or how can I make explicit $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$?
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:38
1
$begingroup$
For your attempt, you used "positive" and "negative" as the separation condition. This doesn't work for the norm, because you cannot have a negative norm value... but there's no need to cut at zero. Try cutting somewhere else.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:39
$begingroup$
Awesome, I got it! But for (b), I have some troubles. I thinking in $A_{1}, A_{2}$ such that $partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2} neq emptyset$ and $Vsetminus(A_{1}cup A_{2}) = partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2}$. How can I ensure that $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$ exist? Or how can I make explicit $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$?
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:38
$begingroup$
Awesome, I got it! But for (b), I have some troubles. I thinking in $A_{1}, A_{2}$ such that $partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2} neq emptyset$ and $Vsetminus(A_{1}cup A_{2}) = partial A_{1} cap partial A_{2}$. How can I ensure that $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$ exist? Or how can I make explicit $A_{1}$ and $A_{2}$?
$endgroup$
– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:38
1
1
$begingroup$
For your attempt, you used "positive" and "negative" as the separation condition. This doesn't work for the norm, because you cannot have a negative norm value... but there's no need to cut at zero. Try cutting somewhere else.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:39
$begingroup$
For your attempt, you used "positive" and "negative" as the separation condition. This doesn't work for the norm, because you cannot have a negative norm value... but there's no need to cut at zero. Try cutting somewhere else.
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:39
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The converse is true, we'll prove it by contraposition:
Assume that $X$ is unbounded. Hence for every $ninmathbb{N}$ exists $x_n in X$ such that $|x_n| ge n$. Consider the sequence $(lambda_n)_n = left(frac1nright)_n$. We have $lim_{ntoinfty} lambda_n = 0$ but
$ |lambda_nx_n| ge 1, forall ninmathbb{N}$ so it cannot converge to $0$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The converse is true, we'll prove it by contraposition:
Assume that $X$ is unbounded. Hence for every $ninmathbb{N}$ exists $x_n in X$ such that $|x_n| ge n$. Consider the sequence $(lambda_n)_n = left(frac1nright)_n$. We have $lim_{ntoinfty} lambda_n = 0$ but
$ |lambda_nx_n| ge 1, forall ninmathbb{N}$ so it cannot converge to $0$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The converse is true, we'll prove it by contraposition:
Assume that $X$ is unbounded. Hence for every $ninmathbb{N}$ exists $x_n in X$ such that $|x_n| ge n$. Consider the sequence $(lambda_n)_n = left(frac1nright)_n$. We have $lim_{ntoinfty} lambda_n = 0$ but
$ |lambda_nx_n| ge 1, forall ninmathbb{N}$ so it cannot converge to $0$.
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The converse is true, we'll prove it by contraposition:
Assume that $X$ is unbounded. Hence for every $ninmathbb{N}$ exists $x_n in X$ such that $|x_n| ge n$. Consider the sequence $(lambda_n)_n = left(frac1nright)_n$. We have $lim_{ntoinfty} lambda_n = 0$ but
$ |lambda_nx_n| ge 1, forall ninmathbb{N}$ so it cannot converge to $0$.
answered Jan 4 at 22:28
mechanodroidmechanodroid
28.7k62548
28.7k62548
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For the converse: suppose $X$ is not bounded. Then it contains some sequence $(x_n)$ such that $(|x_n|)toinfty$ (take $x_n$ to be an example given by the negation of the definition of "bounded" with the constant set to $n$). Take $lambda_n = frac{1}{|x_n|}$. Then $(lambda_n)to 0$, but $(lambda_nx_n)notto 0$, since $(|lambda_nx_n|) = (1) notto 0$. Thus, taking the contrapositive, we have the converse (NB: you've got a bit missing out of the contrapositive you've given in the title: you've dropped the $limlambda_n = 0$ bit).
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For the converse: suppose $X$ is not bounded. Then it contains some sequence $(x_n)$ such that $(|x_n|)toinfty$ (take $x_n$ to be an example given by the negation of the definition of "bounded" with the constant set to $n$). Take $lambda_n = frac{1}{|x_n|}$. Then $(lambda_n)to 0$, but $(lambda_nx_n)notto 0$, since $(|lambda_nx_n|) = (1) notto 0$. Thus, taking the contrapositive, we have the converse (NB: you've got a bit missing out of the contrapositive you've given in the title: you've dropped the $limlambda_n = 0$ bit).
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add a comment |
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For the converse: suppose $X$ is not bounded. Then it contains some sequence $(x_n)$ such that $(|x_n|)toinfty$ (take $x_n$ to be an example given by the negation of the definition of "bounded" with the constant set to $n$). Take $lambda_n = frac{1}{|x_n|}$. Then $(lambda_n)to 0$, but $(lambda_nx_n)notto 0$, since $(|lambda_nx_n|) = (1) notto 0$. Thus, taking the contrapositive, we have the converse (NB: you've got a bit missing out of the contrapositive you've given in the title: you've dropped the $limlambda_n = 0$ bit).
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For the converse: suppose $X$ is not bounded. Then it contains some sequence $(x_n)$ such that $(|x_n|)toinfty$ (take $x_n$ to be an example given by the negation of the definition of "bounded" with the constant set to $n$). Take $lambda_n = frac{1}{|x_n|}$. Then $(lambda_n)to 0$, but $(lambda_nx_n)notto 0$, since $(|lambda_nx_n|) = (1) notto 0$. Thus, taking the contrapositive, we have the converse (NB: you've got a bit missing out of the contrapositive you've given in the title: you've dropped the $limlambda_n = 0$ bit).
answered Jan 4 at 22:29
user3482749user3482749
4,296919
4,296919
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add a comment |
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Your approach to part (a) is correct; to be more explicit, you could show why $A+b$ is open.
You have the right idea for part (b), but it needs to be stated a bit more generally. Let $A_1$ and $A_2$ be disjoint open balls that both have some point $z$ in their closure. Then if $F_1$, $F_2$ are closed sets containing $A_1$, $A_2$, respectively, we have $zin F_1$ and $zin F_2$ since $F_1supset overline{A_1}$ and $F_2supsetoverline{A_2}$, so $F_1$ and $F_2$ cannot be disjoint. To construct such $A_1$ and $A_2$, let $x,y$ be distinct points in $V$ with $|x|=|y|$ and consider the open balls centered at $x$ and $y$ with radius $frac 12 |x-y|$. Then the point $frac12(x+y)$ is in the closure of both of these balls.
For part (c) I will defer to the accepted answer.
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add a comment |
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Your approach to part (a) is correct; to be more explicit, you could show why $A+b$ is open.
You have the right idea for part (b), but it needs to be stated a bit more generally. Let $A_1$ and $A_2$ be disjoint open balls that both have some point $z$ in their closure. Then if $F_1$, $F_2$ are closed sets containing $A_1$, $A_2$, respectively, we have $zin F_1$ and $zin F_2$ since $F_1supset overline{A_1}$ and $F_2supsetoverline{A_2}$, so $F_1$ and $F_2$ cannot be disjoint. To construct such $A_1$ and $A_2$, let $x,y$ be distinct points in $V$ with $|x|=|y|$ and consider the open balls centered at $x$ and $y$ with radius $frac 12 |x-y|$. Then the point $frac12(x+y)$ is in the closure of both of these balls.
For part (c) I will defer to the accepted answer.
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add a comment |
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Your approach to part (a) is correct; to be more explicit, you could show why $A+b$ is open.
You have the right idea for part (b), but it needs to be stated a bit more generally. Let $A_1$ and $A_2$ be disjoint open balls that both have some point $z$ in their closure. Then if $F_1$, $F_2$ are closed sets containing $A_1$, $A_2$, respectively, we have $zin F_1$ and $zin F_2$ since $F_1supset overline{A_1}$ and $F_2supsetoverline{A_2}$, so $F_1$ and $F_2$ cannot be disjoint. To construct such $A_1$ and $A_2$, let $x,y$ be distinct points in $V$ with $|x|=|y|$ and consider the open balls centered at $x$ and $y$ with radius $frac 12 |x-y|$. Then the point $frac12(x+y)$ is in the closure of both of these balls.
For part (c) I will defer to the accepted answer.
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Your approach to part (a) is correct; to be more explicit, you could show why $A+b$ is open.
You have the right idea for part (b), but it needs to be stated a bit more generally. Let $A_1$ and $A_2$ be disjoint open balls that both have some point $z$ in their closure. Then if $F_1$, $F_2$ are closed sets containing $A_1$, $A_2$, respectively, we have $zin F_1$ and $zin F_2$ since $F_1supset overline{A_1}$ and $F_2supsetoverline{A_2}$, so $F_1$ and $F_2$ cannot be disjoint. To construct such $A_1$ and $A_2$, let $x,y$ be distinct points in $V$ with $|x|=|y|$ and consider the open balls centered at $x$ and $y$ with radius $frac 12 |x-y|$. Then the point $frac12(x+y)$ is in the closure of both of these balls.
For part (c) I will defer to the accepted answer.
answered Jan 4 at 22:40
Math1000Math1000
19.3k31745
19.3k31745
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Don't you need $lambda_nto0$?
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– SmileyCraft
Jan 4 at 22:18
1
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There are a couple issues with your part (c); one is your assumption that you can write $x_n$ in coordinates in this way (and why would you need to?), and second is that there is a quite large gap - some magic has happened when you say "Thus." What would happen if $lambda_n = 1$ for all $n$?
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– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:20
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@SmileyCraft, oh, yes! I forgot to write!
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– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:20
1
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For another issue, note that in part (b) you're implicitly assuming that $V = mathbb{R}$. This is supposed to be a general normed space, although your idea is on the right track.
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– T. Bongers
Jan 4 at 22:21
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@T.Bongers, thanks for the hint! I'll try to correct the mistakes.
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– Lucas Corrêa
Jan 4 at 22:22