Noncommuting complex matrices: Existence of a simultaneous eigenvector
$begingroup$
Let $A$ and $B$ be $ntimes n$ matrices with complex entries such that
$AB - BA$ is a linear combination of $A$ and $B$.
I'd like to prove that there exists a non-zero vector $v$ that is an eigenvector of both $A$ and $B$.
linear-algebra matrices eigenvalues-eigenvectors lie-algebras
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $A$ and $B$ be $ntimes n$ matrices with complex entries such that
$AB - BA$ is a linear combination of $A$ and $B$.
I'd like to prove that there exists a non-zero vector $v$ that is an eigenvector of both $A$ and $B$.
linear-algebra matrices eigenvalues-eigenvectors lie-algebras
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Anything you tried to solve this problem?
$endgroup$
– Hetebrij
Nov 29 '15 at 22:17
$begingroup$
So, I know that eigenvectors are the solutions such that the determinant is zero when you know the eigenvalues to each. I assume that, since the matrices are distinct, their eigenvalues will have to be different for that matching eigenvector. Otherwise, I am very lost about why the linear combination of A and B is important.
$endgroup$
– Mark Frazier
Nov 29 '15 at 22:27
$begingroup$
What is given means $AB-BA=lambda A+mu B$. Use that
$endgroup$
– Denis Düsseldorf
Nov 29 '15 at 22:33
$begingroup$
The linear combination of $A$ and $B$ is important because in general we do not know if $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable w.r.t. the same basis. However, in the more general case that $AB-BA=0$, we do know that $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable w.r.t. the same basis.
$endgroup$
– Hetebrij
Nov 29 '15 at 23:41
$begingroup$
In fact $A,B$ are simultaneously triangularizable. If you know Lie theory, then it is very easy. Otherwise do as follows. 1. Reduce the problem to the case $AB-BA=A$. 2. Calculate, by a recurrence reasoning, $A^kB-BA^k$. 3. Show that $A$ is nilpotent. 4. Consider $ker(A)$.
$endgroup$
– loup blanc
Dec 3 '15 at 15:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $A$ and $B$ be $ntimes n$ matrices with complex entries such that
$AB - BA$ is a linear combination of $A$ and $B$.
I'd like to prove that there exists a non-zero vector $v$ that is an eigenvector of both $A$ and $B$.
linear-algebra matrices eigenvalues-eigenvectors lie-algebras
$endgroup$
Let $A$ and $B$ be $ntimes n$ matrices with complex entries such that
$AB - BA$ is a linear combination of $A$ and $B$.
I'd like to prove that there exists a non-zero vector $v$ that is an eigenvector of both $A$ and $B$.
linear-algebra matrices eigenvalues-eigenvectors lie-algebras
linear-algebra matrices eigenvalues-eigenvectors lie-algebras
edited Jan 5 at 7:28
Hanno
2,404628
2,404628
asked Nov 29 '15 at 22:13
Mark FrazierMark Frazier
325
325
$begingroup$
Anything you tried to solve this problem?
$endgroup$
– Hetebrij
Nov 29 '15 at 22:17
$begingroup$
So, I know that eigenvectors are the solutions such that the determinant is zero when you know the eigenvalues to each. I assume that, since the matrices are distinct, their eigenvalues will have to be different for that matching eigenvector. Otherwise, I am very lost about why the linear combination of A and B is important.
$endgroup$
– Mark Frazier
Nov 29 '15 at 22:27
$begingroup$
What is given means $AB-BA=lambda A+mu B$. Use that
$endgroup$
– Denis Düsseldorf
Nov 29 '15 at 22:33
$begingroup$
The linear combination of $A$ and $B$ is important because in general we do not know if $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable w.r.t. the same basis. However, in the more general case that $AB-BA=0$, we do know that $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable w.r.t. the same basis.
$endgroup$
– Hetebrij
Nov 29 '15 at 23:41
$begingroup$
In fact $A,B$ are simultaneously triangularizable. If you know Lie theory, then it is very easy. Otherwise do as follows. 1. Reduce the problem to the case $AB-BA=A$. 2. Calculate, by a recurrence reasoning, $A^kB-BA^k$. 3. Show that $A$ is nilpotent. 4. Consider $ker(A)$.
$endgroup$
– loup blanc
Dec 3 '15 at 15:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Anything you tried to solve this problem?
$endgroup$
– Hetebrij
Nov 29 '15 at 22:17
$begingroup$
So, I know that eigenvectors are the solutions such that the determinant is zero when you know the eigenvalues to each. I assume that, since the matrices are distinct, their eigenvalues will have to be different for that matching eigenvector. Otherwise, I am very lost about why the linear combination of A and B is important.
$endgroup$
– Mark Frazier
Nov 29 '15 at 22:27
$begingroup$
What is given means $AB-BA=lambda A+mu B$. Use that
$endgroup$
– Denis Düsseldorf
Nov 29 '15 at 22:33
$begingroup$
The linear combination of $A$ and $B$ is important because in general we do not know if $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable w.r.t. the same basis. However, in the more general case that $AB-BA=0$, we do know that $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable w.r.t. the same basis.
$endgroup$
– Hetebrij
Nov 29 '15 at 23:41
$begingroup$
In fact $A,B$ are simultaneously triangularizable. If you know Lie theory, then it is very easy. Otherwise do as follows. 1. Reduce the problem to the case $AB-BA=A$. 2. Calculate, by a recurrence reasoning, $A^kB-BA^k$. 3. Show that $A$ is nilpotent. 4. Consider $ker(A)$.
$endgroup$
– loup blanc
Dec 3 '15 at 15:13
$begingroup$
Anything you tried to solve this problem?
$endgroup$
– Hetebrij
Nov 29 '15 at 22:17
$begingroup$
Anything you tried to solve this problem?
$endgroup$
– Hetebrij
Nov 29 '15 at 22:17
$begingroup$
So, I know that eigenvectors are the solutions such that the determinant is zero when you know the eigenvalues to each. I assume that, since the matrices are distinct, their eigenvalues will have to be different for that matching eigenvector. Otherwise, I am very lost about why the linear combination of A and B is important.
$endgroup$
– Mark Frazier
Nov 29 '15 at 22:27
$begingroup$
So, I know that eigenvectors are the solutions such that the determinant is zero when you know the eigenvalues to each. I assume that, since the matrices are distinct, their eigenvalues will have to be different for that matching eigenvector. Otherwise, I am very lost about why the linear combination of A and B is important.
$endgroup$
– Mark Frazier
Nov 29 '15 at 22:27
$begingroup$
What is given means $AB-BA=lambda A+mu B$. Use that
$endgroup$
– Denis Düsseldorf
Nov 29 '15 at 22:33
$begingroup$
What is given means $AB-BA=lambda A+mu B$. Use that
$endgroup$
– Denis Düsseldorf
Nov 29 '15 at 22:33
$begingroup$
The linear combination of $A$ and $B$ is important because in general we do not know if $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable w.r.t. the same basis. However, in the more general case that $AB-BA=0$, we do know that $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable w.r.t. the same basis.
$endgroup$
– Hetebrij
Nov 29 '15 at 23:41
$begingroup$
The linear combination of $A$ and $B$ is important because in general we do not know if $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable w.r.t. the same basis. However, in the more general case that $AB-BA=0$, we do know that $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable w.r.t. the same basis.
$endgroup$
– Hetebrij
Nov 29 '15 at 23:41
$begingroup$
In fact $A,B$ are simultaneously triangularizable. If you know Lie theory, then it is very easy. Otherwise do as follows. 1. Reduce the problem to the case $AB-BA=A$. 2. Calculate, by a recurrence reasoning, $A^kB-BA^k$. 3. Show that $A$ is nilpotent. 4. Consider $ker(A)$.
$endgroup$
– loup blanc
Dec 3 '15 at 15:13
$begingroup$
In fact $A,B$ are simultaneously triangularizable. If you know Lie theory, then it is very easy. Otherwise do as follows. 1. Reduce the problem to the case $AB-BA=A$. 2. Calculate, by a recurrence reasoning, $A^kB-BA^k$. 3. Show that $A$ is nilpotent. 4. Consider $ker(A)$.
$endgroup$
– loup blanc
Dec 3 '15 at 15:13
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
It is assumed throughout that
The given matrices $A$ and $B$ are linearly independent in the $mathbb C$-vector space $M_n(mathbb C)$,
thus ignoring the unremarkable setup where one matrix is a multiple of the other.
My next guess is that the question doesn't focus upon a vanishing commutator of $A$ and $B$, hence consider
$$0:neq:[A,B]:=:AB-BA:=:alpha A+beta B$$
and at least one of the scalars $alpha,beta $ is not zero. Divide by a scalar, say $alphaneq0$, then set
$$B'=frac1alpha B;text{ and }; A'= A+beta B'quadtext{to obtain };
big[,A',B'big]:=:A',.$$
Thus in the sequel we may start w.l.o.g. from
$,mathbf{AB-BA=Aqquadqquad (star)}$
I decided to spill some more MathJax ink here & now, to give examples and a bit Lie algebra background as well. Who's not willing to go through all this should ...
simply jump: Goto The shared eigenvector !
Examples
how to satisfy the relation above:
If $,n=2$, then $,A=begin{pmatrix}0&1\ 0&0end{pmatrix}:$ and
$;B=frac 12begin{pmatrix} -1&0\ 0&1end{pmatrix};$ do the job.
$:begin{pmatrix}1\ 0end{pmatrix}$ is a joint eigenvector.For $n=3$ one may consider
$$A:=:begin{pmatrix}0&a_2&a_3\ 0&0&0\ 0&0&0end{pmatrix};,quad
B:=:begin{pmatrix}b&0&0\ 0&b+1&0\ 0&0&b+1end{pmatrix}$$
where $a_2,a_3,binmathbb C$,and $a_2,a_3$ not both zero.
It is not by accident that $A$ is represented by a nilpotent matrix since this cannot be avoided:
For each $ninmathbb N$ one has
$$big[,A^n,Bbig]:=:n,A^n,$$
the proof by induction using
$,[AA^{n-1},B] = A[A^{n-1},B] + [A,B],A^{n-1}$ (derivation property) is straightforward. Let $|cdot|$ be a submultiplicative matrix norm, then
$$n|A^n|:=:|A^nB-BA^n|;leq;2|B| |A^n|quadforall,n$$
which implies $A^n=0,$ at the latest when $,n>2|B|$. Thus $A$ is nilpotent.
The shared eigenvector
for $B$ and $A$ does exist: Pick an eigenvector $wneq 0$ to an eigenvalue $mu$ of $B$ such that $,mu-1,$ is no eigenvalue of $B$. Insert $w$ into $(star)$
$$BAw:=:ABw - Aw:=:(mu-1)AwquadLongrightarrow; Aw:=:0,,$$
thus $w$ is also an eigenvector of $A$, to the eigenvalue zero.
Lie algebra background
$A$ and $B$ span a complex Lie algebra with Lie bracket given by $(star)$. It is up to (Lie algebra) isomorphism the unique complex Lie algebra, which is 2-dimensional and nonabelian. It is solvable, but not nilpotent.
Lie's theorem guarantees (in any matrix representation) the existence of a shared eigenvector for all elements of a solvable Lie algebra. One implication is that all matrices of a representation may be chosen to be triangular.
Related posts
$AB + BA = A implies A$ and $B$ have a common eigenvector
Questions about non-abelian 2 dimensional lie algebras
A Problem about Common Eigenvector
Representations of the two dimensional non-abelian Lie algebra @MO
Examples of finite dimensional non simple non abelian Lie algebras @MO
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
It is assumed throughout that
The given matrices $A$ and $B$ are linearly independent in the $mathbb C$-vector space $M_n(mathbb C)$,
thus ignoring the unremarkable setup where one matrix is a multiple of the other.
My next guess is that the question doesn't focus upon a vanishing commutator of $A$ and $B$, hence consider
$$0:neq:[A,B]:=:AB-BA:=:alpha A+beta B$$
and at least one of the scalars $alpha,beta $ is not zero. Divide by a scalar, say $alphaneq0$, then set
$$B'=frac1alpha B;text{ and }; A'= A+beta B'quadtext{to obtain };
big[,A',B'big]:=:A',.$$
Thus in the sequel we may start w.l.o.g. from
$,mathbf{AB-BA=Aqquadqquad (star)}$
I decided to spill some more MathJax ink here & now, to give examples and a bit Lie algebra background as well. Who's not willing to go through all this should ...
simply jump: Goto The shared eigenvector !
Examples
how to satisfy the relation above:
If $,n=2$, then $,A=begin{pmatrix}0&1\ 0&0end{pmatrix}:$ and
$;B=frac 12begin{pmatrix} -1&0\ 0&1end{pmatrix};$ do the job.
$:begin{pmatrix}1\ 0end{pmatrix}$ is a joint eigenvector.For $n=3$ one may consider
$$A:=:begin{pmatrix}0&a_2&a_3\ 0&0&0\ 0&0&0end{pmatrix};,quad
B:=:begin{pmatrix}b&0&0\ 0&b+1&0\ 0&0&b+1end{pmatrix}$$
where $a_2,a_3,binmathbb C$,and $a_2,a_3$ not both zero.
It is not by accident that $A$ is represented by a nilpotent matrix since this cannot be avoided:
For each $ninmathbb N$ one has
$$big[,A^n,Bbig]:=:n,A^n,$$
the proof by induction using
$,[AA^{n-1},B] = A[A^{n-1},B] + [A,B],A^{n-1}$ (derivation property) is straightforward. Let $|cdot|$ be a submultiplicative matrix norm, then
$$n|A^n|:=:|A^nB-BA^n|;leq;2|B| |A^n|quadforall,n$$
which implies $A^n=0,$ at the latest when $,n>2|B|$. Thus $A$ is nilpotent.
The shared eigenvector
for $B$ and $A$ does exist: Pick an eigenvector $wneq 0$ to an eigenvalue $mu$ of $B$ such that $,mu-1,$ is no eigenvalue of $B$. Insert $w$ into $(star)$
$$BAw:=:ABw - Aw:=:(mu-1)AwquadLongrightarrow; Aw:=:0,,$$
thus $w$ is also an eigenvector of $A$, to the eigenvalue zero.
Lie algebra background
$A$ and $B$ span a complex Lie algebra with Lie bracket given by $(star)$. It is up to (Lie algebra) isomorphism the unique complex Lie algebra, which is 2-dimensional and nonabelian. It is solvable, but not nilpotent.
Lie's theorem guarantees (in any matrix representation) the existence of a shared eigenvector for all elements of a solvable Lie algebra. One implication is that all matrices of a representation may be chosen to be triangular.
Related posts
$AB + BA = A implies A$ and $B$ have a common eigenvector
Questions about non-abelian 2 dimensional lie algebras
A Problem about Common Eigenvector
Representations of the two dimensional non-abelian Lie algebra @MO
Examples of finite dimensional non simple non abelian Lie algebras @MO
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It is assumed throughout that
The given matrices $A$ and $B$ are linearly independent in the $mathbb C$-vector space $M_n(mathbb C)$,
thus ignoring the unremarkable setup where one matrix is a multiple of the other.
My next guess is that the question doesn't focus upon a vanishing commutator of $A$ and $B$, hence consider
$$0:neq:[A,B]:=:AB-BA:=:alpha A+beta B$$
and at least one of the scalars $alpha,beta $ is not zero. Divide by a scalar, say $alphaneq0$, then set
$$B'=frac1alpha B;text{ and }; A'= A+beta B'quadtext{to obtain };
big[,A',B'big]:=:A',.$$
Thus in the sequel we may start w.l.o.g. from
$,mathbf{AB-BA=Aqquadqquad (star)}$
I decided to spill some more MathJax ink here & now, to give examples and a bit Lie algebra background as well. Who's not willing to go through all this should ...
simply jump: Goto The shared eigenvector !
Examples
how to satisfy the relation above:
If $,n=2$, then $,A=begin{pmatrix}0&1\ 0&0end{pmatrix}:$ and
$;B=frac 12begin{pmatrix} -1&0\ 0&1end{pmatrix};$ do the job.
$:begin{pmatrix}1\ 0end{pmatrix}$ is a joint eigenvector.For $n=3$ one may consider
$$A:=:begin{pmatrix}0&a_2&a_3\ 0&0&0\ 0&0&0end{pmatrix};,quad
B:=:begin{pmatrix}b&0&0\ 0&b+1&0\ 0&0&b+1end{pmatrix}$$
where $a_2,a_3,binmathbb C$,and $a_2,a_3$ not both zero.
It is not by accident that $A$ is represented by a nilpotent matrix since this cannot be avoided:
For each $ninmathbb N$ one has
$$big[,A^n,Bbig]:=:n,A^n,$$
the proof by induction using
$,[AA^{n-1},B] = A[A^{n-1},B] + [A,B],A^{n-1}$ (derivation property) is straightforward. Let $|cdot|$ be a submultiplicative matrix norm, then
$$n|A^n|:=:|A^nB-BA^n|;leq;2|B| |A^n|quadforall,n$$
which implies $A^n=0,$ at the latest when $,n>2|B|$. Thus $A$ is nilpotent.
The shared eigenvector
for $B$ and $A$ does exist: Pick an eigenvector $wneq 0$ to an eigenvalue $mu$ of $B$ such that $,mu-1,$ is no eigenvalue of $B$. Insert $w$ into $(star)$
$$BAw:=:ABw - Aw:=:(mu-1)AwquadLongrightarrow; Aw:=:0,,$$
thus $w$ is also an eigenvector of $A$, to the eigenvalue zero.
Lie algebra background
$A$ and $B$ span a complex Lie algebra with Lie bracket given by $(star)$. It is up to (Lie algebra) isomorphism the unique complex Lie algebra, which is 2-dimensional and nonabelian. It is solvable, but not nilpotent.
Lie's theorem guarantees (in any matrix representation) the existence of a shared eigenvector for all elements of a solvable Lie algebra. One implication is that all matrices of a representation may be chosen to be triangular.
Related posts
$AB + BA = A implies A$ and $B$ have a common eigenvector
Questions about non-abelian 2 dimensional lie algebras
A Problem about Common Eigenvector
Representations of the two dimensional non-abelian Lie algebra @MO
Examples of finite dimensional non simple non abelian Lie algebras @MO
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It is assumed throughout that
The given matrices $A$ and $B$ are linearly independent in the $mathbb C$-vector space $M_n(mathbb C)$,
thus ignoring the unremarkable setup where one matrix is a multiple of the other.
My next guess is that the question doesn't focus upon a vanishing commutator of $A$ and $B$, hence consider
$$0:neq:[A,B]:=:AB-BA:=:alpha A+beta B$$
and at least one of the scalars $alpha,beta $ is not zero. Divide by a scalar, say $alphaneq0$, then set
$$B'=frac1alpha B;text{ and }; A'= A+beta B'quadtext{to obtain };
big[,A',B'big]:=:A',.$$
Thus in the sequel we may start w.l.o.g. from
$,mathbf{AB-BA=Aqquadqquad (star)}$
I decided to spill some more MathJax ink here & now, to give examples and a bit Lie algebra background as well. Who's not willing to go through all this should ...
simply jump: Goto The shared eigenvector !
Examples
how to satisfy the relation above:
If $,n=2$, then $,A=begin{pmatrix}0&1\ 0&0end{pmatrix}:$ and
$;B=frac 12begin{pmatrix} -1&0\ 0&1end{pmatrix};$ do the job.
$:begin{pmatrix}1\ 0end{pmatrix}$ is a joint eigenvector.For $n=3$ one may consider
$$A:=:begin{pmatrix}0&a_2&a_3\ 0&0&0\ 0&0&0end{pmatrix};,quad
B:=:begin{pmatrix}b&0&0\ 0&b+1&0\ 0&0&b+1end{pmatrix}$$
where $a_2,a_3,binmathbb C$,and $a_2,a_3$ not both zero.
It is not by accident that $A$ is represented by a nilpotent matrix since this cannot be avoided:
For each $ninmathbb N$ one has
$$big[,A^n,Bbig]:=:n,A^n,$$
the proof by induction using
$,[AA^{n-1},B] = A[A^{n-1},B] + [A,B],A^{n-1}$ (derivation property) is straightforward. Let $|cdot|$ be a submultiplicative matrix norm, then
$$n|A^n|:=:|A^nB-BA^n|;leq;2|B| |A^n|quadforall,n$$
which implies $A^n=0,$ at the latest when $,n>2|B|$. Thus $A$ is nilpotent.
The shared eigenvector
for $B$ and $A$ does exist: Pick an eigenvector $wneq 0$ to an eigenvalue $mu$ of $B$ such that $,mu-1,$ is no eigenvalue of $B$. Insert $w$ into $(star)$
$$BAw:=:ABw - Aw:=:(mu-1)AwquadLongrightarrow; Aw:=:0,,$$
thus $w$ is also an eigenvector of $A$, to the eigenvalue zero.
Lie algebra background
$A$ and $B$ span a complex Lie algebra with Lie bracket given by $(star)$. It is up to (Lie algebra) isomorphism the unique complex Lie algebra, which is 2-dimensional and nonabelian. It is solvable, but not nilpotent.
Lie's theorem guarantees (in any matrix representation) the existence of a shared eigenvector for all elements of a solvable Lie algebra. One implication is that all matrices of a representation may be chosen to be triangular.
Related posts
$AB + BA = A implies A$ and $B$ have a common eigenvector
Questions about non-abelian 2 dimensional lie algebras
A Problem about Common Eigenvector
Representations of the two dimensional non-abelian Lie algebra @MO
Examples of finite dimensional non simple non abelian Lie algebras @MO
$endgroup$
It is assumed throughout that
The given matrices $A$ and $B$ are linearly independent in the $mathbb C$-vector space $M_n(mathbb C)$,
thus ignoring the unremarkable setup where one matrix is a multiple of the other.
My next guess is that the question doesn't focus upon a vanishing commutator of $A$ and $B$, hence consider
$$0:neq:[A,B]:=:AB-BA:=:alpha A+beta B$$
and at least one of the scalars $alpha,beta $ is not zero. Divide by a scalar, say $alphaneq0$, then set
$$B'=frac1alpha B;text{ and }; A'= A+beta B'quadtext{to obtain };
big[,A',B'big]:=:A',.$$
Thus in the sequel we may start w.l.o.g. from
$,mathbf{AB-BA=Aqquadqquad (star)}$
I decided to spill some more MathJax ink here & now, to give examples and a bit Lie algebra background as well. Who's not willing to go through all this should ...
simply jump: Goto The shared eigenvector !
Examples
how to satisfy the relation above:
If $,n=2$, then $,A=begin{pmatrix}0&1\ 0&0end{pmatrix}:$ and
$;B=frac 12begin{pmatrix} -1&0\ 0&1end{pmatrix};$ do the job.
$:begin{pmatrix}1\ 0end{pmatrix}$ is a joint eigenvector.For $n=3$ one may consider
$$A:=:begin{pmatrix}0&a_2&a_3\ 0&0&0\ 0&0&0end{pmatrix};,quad
B:=:begin{pmatrix}b&0&0\ 0&b+1&0\ 0&0&b+1end{pmatrix}$$
where $a_2,a_3,binmathbb C$,and $a_2,a_3$ not both zero.
It is not by accident that $A$ is represented by a nilpotent matrix since this cannot be avoided:
For each $ninmathbb N$ one has
$$big[,A^n,Bbig]:=:n,A^n,$$
the proof by induction using
$,[AA^{n-1},B] = A[A^{n-1},B] + [A,B],A^{n-1}$ (derivation property) is straightforward. Let $|cdot|$ be a submultiplicative matrix norm, then
$$n|A^n|:=:|A^nB-BA^n|;leq;2|B| |A^n|quadforall,n$$
which implies $A^n=0,$ at the latest when $,n>2|B|$. Thus $A$ is nilpotent.
The shared eigenvector
for $B$ and $A$ does exist: Pick an eigenvector $wneq 0$ to an eigenvalue $mu$ of $B$ such that $,mu-1,$ is no eigenvalue of $B$. Insert $w$ into $(star)$
$$BAw:=:ABw - Aw:=:(mu-1)AwquadLongrightarrow; Aw:=:0,,$$
thus $w$ is also an eigenvector of $A$, to the eigenvalue zero.
Lie algebra background
$A$ and $B$ span a complex Lie algebra with Lie bracket given by $(star)$. It is up to (Lie algebra) isomorphism the unique complex Lie algebra, which is 2-dimensional and nonabelian. It is solvable, but not nilpotent.
Lie's theorem guarantees (in any matrix representation) the existence of a shared eigenvector for all elements of a solvable Lie algebra. One implication is that all matrices of a representation may be chosen to be triangular.
Related posts
$AB + BA = A implies A$ and $B$ have a common eigenvector
Questions about non-abelian 2 dimensional lie algebras
A Problem about Common Eigenvector
Representations of the two dimensional non-abelian Lie algebra @MO
Examples of finite dimensional non simple non abelian Lie algebras @MO
edited Jan 9 at 9:47
answered Jan 4 at 22:22
HannoHanno
2,404628
2,404628
add a comment |
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Anything you tried to solve this problem?
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– Hetebrij
Nov 29 '15 at 22:17
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So, I know that eigenvectors are the solutions such that the determinant is zero when you know the eigenvalues to each. I assume that, since the matrices are distinct, their eigenvalues will have to be different for that matching eigenvector. Otherwise, I am very lost about why the linear combination of A and B is important.
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– Mark Frazier
Nov 29 '15 at 22:27
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What is given means $AB-BA=lambda A+mu B$. Use that
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– Denis Düsseldorf
Nov 29 '15 at 22:33
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The linear combination of $A$ and $B$ is important because in general we do not know if $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable w.r.t. the same basis. However, in the more general case that $AB-BA=0$, we do know that $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable w.r.t. the same basis.
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– Hetebrij
Nov 29 '15 at 23:41
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In fact $A,B$ are simultaneously triangularizable. If you know Lie theory, then it is very easy. Otherwise do as follows. 1. Reduce the problem to the case $AB-BA=A$. 2. Calculate, by a recurrence reasoning, $A^kB-BA^k$. 3. Show that $A$ is nilpotent. 4. Consider $ker(A)$.
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– loup blanc
Dec 3 '15 at 15:13