Problems 12-13 from Herstein's book












3












$begingroup$


I. Let $G$ be a nonempty set closed under an associative product, which in addition satisfies:



(a) There exists an $ein g$ such that $acdot e=a$ for all $ain G$.



(b) Give $ain G$, there exists an element $a^{-1}in G$ such that $acdot a^{-1}=e$.



Prove that $G$ must be a group under this product.



II. Prove, by an example, that right indentity element and left inverse does not imply that $G$ is group.



My solution:



I. Since $G$ is closed set under an associative product, i.e. if $a,b,cin G$ then $(acdot b)cdot c=acdot (bcdot c)in G$. Taking $c=e$ we get $(acdot b)cdot e=acdot (bcdot e)=acdot b in G$. We have shown that $cdot$ is binary operation. Since $ain G$ then $a^{-1}in G$ and we have the following identities $$a^{-1}=a^{-1}cdot e=a^{-1}cdot (acdot a^{-1})=(a^{-1}cdot a)cdot a^{-1}$$
Then $$e=a^{-1}cdot (a^{-1})^{-1}=((a^{-1}cdot a)cdot a^{-1})cdot (a^{-1})^{-1}=(a^{-1}cdot a)cdot (a^{-1}cdot (a^{-1})^{-1})=(a^{-1}cdot a)cdot e=a^{-1}cdot a$$
We have shown that $acdot a^{-1}=a^{-1}cdot a=e$
then $ecdot a=(acdot a^{-1})cdot a=acdot (a^{-1}cdot a)=acdot e=a$



We have shown that for this set $G$ the property of associativity, binary, identity and inverse hold $Rightarrow$ $G$ - group.



II. But II indeed is true. Lets take the set $G={a,b,e}$ and define the product $cdot$ by the following identities: $ecdot e=acdot e=bcdot e=e$ and $a^{-1}=b, b^{-1}=a$ and consider the following multiplication table for our set $G$



$begin{array}{c | c c c c c}
hlinehline
& e & a & b \
hline
e & e & b & b & \
a & a & a & e & \
b & b & e & a & \
hline
end{array}
$



It's easy to verify that conditions of second problem hold for our $G$, however, $G$ is not group since we can show that $b=a$.



Is my reasoning above correct?



EDIT: Maybe this is a duplicate but I would like to know if my solution is true since I have solved it by myself. Especiaaly I am interested in the solution of the second problem.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Maybe it is a duplicate but I would like to know if my solution is true?
    $endgroup$
    – ZFR
    Nov 22 '17 at 8:58










  • $begingroup$
    Part I is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Nex
    Nov 22 '17 at 19:43










  • $begingroup$
    @Nex, What about part II?
    $endgroup$
    – ZFR
    Nov 22 '17 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    Your construction seems to be ad hock and hence time consuming to check if it is associative or not. Why not $xcdot y= x$ on the same set?
    $endgroup$
    – Nex
    Nov 22 '17 at 20:32
















3












$begingroup$


I. Let $G$ be a nonempty set closed under an associative product, which in addition satisfies:



(a) There exists an $ein g$ such that $acdot e=a$ for all $ain G$.



(b) Give $ain G$, there exists an element $a^{-1}in G$ such that $acdot a^{-1}=e$.



Prove that $G$ must be a group under this product.



II. Prove, by an example, that right indentity element and left inverse does not imply that $G$ is group.



My solution:



I. Since $G$ is closed set under an associative product, i.e. if $a,b,cin G$ then $(acdot b)cdot c=acdot (bcdot c)in G$. Taking $c=e$ we get $(acdot b)cdot e=acdot (bcdot e)=acdot b in G$. We have shown that $cdot$ is binary operation. Since $ain G$ then $a^{-1}in G$ and we have the following identities $$a^{-1}=a^{-1}cdot e=a^{-1}cdot (acdot a^{-1})=(a^{-1}cdot a)cdot a^{-1}$$
Then $$e=a^{-1}cdot (a^{-1})^{-1}=((a^{-1}cdot a)cdot a^{-1})cdot (a^{-1})^{-1}=(a^{-1}cdot a)cdot (a^{-1}cdot (a^{-1})^{-1})=(a^{-1}cdot a)cdot e=a^{-1}cdot a$$
We have shown that $acdot a^{-1}=a^{-1}cdot a=e$
then $ecdot a=(acdot a^{-1})cdot a=acdot (a^{-1}cdot a)=acdot e=a$



We have shown that for this set $G$ the property of associativity, binary, identity and inverse hold $Rightarrow$ $G$ - group.



II. But II indeed is true. Lets take the set $G={a,b,e}$ and define the product $cdot$ by the following identities: $ecdot e=acdot e=bcdot e=e$ and $a^{-1}=b, b^{-1}=a$ and consider the following multiplication table for our set $G$



$begin{array}{c | c c c c c}
hlinehline
& e & a & b \
hline
e & e & b & b & \
a & a & a & e & \
b & b & e & a & \
hline
end{array}
$



It's easy to verify that conditions of second problem hold for our $G$, however, $G$ is not group since we can show that $b=a$.



Is my reasoning above correct?



EDIT: Maybe this is a duplicate but I would like to know if my solution is true since I have solved it by myself. Especiaaly I am interested in the solution of the second problem.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Maybe it is a duplicate but I would like to know if my solution is true?
    $endgroup$
    – ZFR
    Nov 22 '17 at 8:58










  • $begingroup$
    Part I is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Nex
    Nov 22 '17 at 19:43










  • $begingroup$
    @Nex, What about part II?
    $endgroup$
    – ZFR
    Nov 22 '17 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    Your construction seems to be ad hock and hence time consuming to check if it is associative or not. Why not $xcdot y= x$ on the same set?
    $endgroup$
    – Nex
    Nov 22 '17 at 20:32














3












3








3





$begingroup$


I. Let $G$ be a nonempty set closed under an associative product, which in addition satisfies:



(a) There exists an $ein g$ such that $acdot e=a$ for all $ain G$.



(b) Give $ain G$, there exists an element $a^{-1}in G$ such that $acdot a^{-1}=e$.



Prove that $G$ must be a group under this product.



II. Prove, by an example, that right indentity element and left inverse does not imply that $G$ is group.



My solution:



I. Since $G$ is closed set under an associative product, i.e. if $a,b,cin G$ then $(acdot b)cdot c=acdot (bcdot c)in G$. Taking $c=e$ we get $(acdot b)cdot e=acdot (bcdot e)=acdot b in G$. We have shown that $cdot$ is binary operation. Since $ain G$ then $a^{-1}in G$ and we have the following identities $$a^{-1}=a^{-1}cdot e=a^{-1}cdot (acdot a^{-1})=(a^{-1}cdot a)cdot a^{-1}$$
Then $$e=a^{-1}cdot (a^{-1})^{-1}=((a^{-1}cdot a)cdot a^{-1})cdot (a^{-1})^{-1}=(a^{-1}cdot a)cdot (a^{-1}cdot (a^{-1})^{-1})=(a^{-1}cdot a)cdot e=a^{-1}cdot a$$
We have shown that $acdot a^{-1}=a^{-1}cdot a=e$
then $ecdot a=(acdot a^{-1})cdot a=acdot (a^{-1}cdot a)=acdot e=a$



We have shown that for this set $G$ the property of associativity, binary, identity and inverse hold $Rightarrow$ $G$ - group.



II. But II indeed is true. Lets take the set $G={a,b,e}$ and define the product $cdot$ by the following identities: $ecdot e=acdot e=bcdot e=e$ and $a^{-1}=b, b^{-1}=a$ and consider the following multiplication table for our set $G$



$begin{array}{c | c c c c c}
hlinehline
& e & a & b \
hline
e & e & b & b & \
a & a & a & e & \
b & b & e & a & \
hline
end{array}
$



It's easy to verify that conditions of second problem hold for our $G$, however, $G$ is not group since we can show that $b=a$.



Is my reasoning above correct?



EDIT: Maybe this is a duplicate but I would like to know if my solution is true since I have solved it by myself. Especiaaly I am interested in the solution of the second problem.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I. Let $G$ be a nonempty set closed under an associative product, which in addition satisfies:



(a) There exists an $ein g$ such that $acdot e=a$ for all $ain G$.



(b) Give $ain G$, there exists an element $a^{-1}in G$ such that $acdot a^{-1}=e$.



Prove that $G$ must be a group under this product.



II. Prove, by an example, that right indentity element and left inverse does not imply that $G$ is group.



My solution:



I. Since $G$ is closed set under an associative product, i.e. if $a,b,cin G$ then $(acdot b)cdot c=acdot (bcdot c)in G$. Taking $c=e$ we get $(acdot b)cdot e=acdot (bcdot e)=acdot b in G$. We have shown that $cdot$ is binary operation. Since $ain G$ then $a^{-1}in G$ and we have the following identities $$a^{-1}=a^{-1}cdot e=a^{-1}cdot (acdot a^{-1})=(a^{-1}cdot a)cdot a^{-1}$$
Then $$e=a^{-1}cdot (a^{-1})^{-1}=((a^{-1}cdot a)cdot a^{-1})cdot (a^{-1})^{-1}=(a^{-1}cdot a)cdot (a^{-1}cdot (a^{-1})^{-1})=(a^{-1}cdot a)cdot e=a^{-1}cdot a$$
We have shown that $acdot a^{-1}=a^{-1}cdot a=e$
then $ecdot a=(acdot a^{-1})cdot a=acdot (a^{-1}cdot a)=acdot e=a$



We have shown that for this set $G$ the property of associativity, binary, identity and inverse hold $Rightarrow$ $G$ - group.



II. But II indeed is true. Lets take the set $G={a,b,e}$ and define the product $cdot$ by the following identities: $ecdot e=acdot e=bcdot e=e$ and $a^{-1}=b, b^{-1}=a$ and consider the following multiplication table for our set $G$



$begin{array}{c | c c c c c}
hlinehline
& e & a & b \
hline
e & e & b & b & \
a & a & a & e & \
b & b & e & a & \
hline
end{array}
$



It's easy to verify that conditions of second problem hold for our $G$, however, $G$ is not group since we can show that $b=a$.



Is my reasoning above correct?



EDIT: Maybe this is a duplicate but I would like to know if my solution is true since I have solved it by myself. Especiaaly I am interested in the solution of the second problem.







abstract-algebra group-theory proof-verification semigroups






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 10 at 10:37









J.-E. Pin

18.6k21754




18.6k21754










asked Nov 22 '17 at 8:16









ZFRZFR

5,32331540




5,32331540












  • $begingroup$
    Maybe it is a duplicate but I would like to know if my solution is true?
    $endgroup$
    – ZFR
    Nov 22 '17 at 8:58










  • $begingroup$
    Part I is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Nex
    Nov 22 '17 at 19:43










  • $begingroup$
    @Nex, What about part II?
    $endgroup$
    – ZFR
    Nov 22 '17 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    Your construction seems to be ad hock and hence time consuming to check if it is associative or not. Why not $xcdot y= x$ on the same set?
    $endgroup$
    – Nex
    Nov 22 '17 at 20:32


















  • $begingroup$
    Maybe it is a duplicate but I would like to know if my solution is true?
    $endgroup$
    – ZFR
    Nov 22 '17 at 8:58










  • $begingroup$
    Part I is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Nex
    Nov 22 '17 at 19:43










  • $begingroup$
    @Nex, What about part II?
    $endgroup$
    – ZFR
    Nov 22 '17 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    Your construction seems to be ad hock and hence time consuming to check if it is associative or not. Why not $xcdot y= x$ on the same set?
    $endgroup$
    – Nex
    Nov 22 '17 at 20:32
















$begingroup$
Maybe it is a duplicate but I would like to know if my solution is true?
$endgroup$
– ZFR
Nov 22 '17 at 8:58




$begingroup$
Maybe it is a duplicate but I would like to know if my solution is true?
$endgroup$
– ZFR
Nov 22 '17 at 8:58












$begingroup$
Part I is correct.
$endgroup$
– Nex
Nov 22 '17 at 19:43




$begingroup$
Part I is correct.
$endgroup$
– Nex
Nov 22 '17 at 19:43












$begingroup$
@Nex, What about part II?
$endgroup$
– ZFR
Nov 22 '17 at 20:04




$begingroup$
@Nex, What about part II?
$endgroup$
– ZFR
Nov 22 '17 at 20:04












$begingroup$
Your construction seems to be ad hock and hence time consuming to check if it is associative or not. Why not $xcdot y= x$ on the same set?
$endgroup$
– Nex
Nov 22 '17 at 20:32




$begingroup$
Your construction seems to be ad hock and hence time consuming to check if it is associative or not. Why not $xcdot y= x$ on the same set?
$endgroup$
– Nex
Nov 22 '17 at 20:32










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

You don't need to verify that the operation is defined and associative: that's already given.



What you need to show is that





  1. $e$ is a left identity as well as a right identity (the latter condition is given)


  2. $a^{-1}a=e$, for every $ain G$


On the other hand, using $a^{-1}$ may be misleading, but your argument seems good. For the sake of clarity, I'll denote by $b$ and $c$ elements such that $ab=e$ and $bc=e$. Your argument becomes
$$
b=be=b(ab)=(ba)b
$$

then
$$
e=bc=((ba)b)c=(ba)(bc)=(ba)e=ba
$$

Therefore
$$
ea=(ab)a=a(ba)=ae=a
$$

Good work!



The operation you give the Cayley table of does not define a group structure on ${e,a,b}$, because $ea=eb$, but $ane b$ (this is better than saying that “we can show that $a=b$, which is false at the outset). So long as you verify it is associative, you have your counterexample.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    $begingroup$

    You don't need to verify that the operation is defined and associative: that's already given.



    What you need to show is that





    1. $e$ is a left identity as well as a right identity (the latter condition is given)


    2. $a^{-1}a=e$, for every $ain G$


    On the other hand, using $a^{-1}$ may be misleading, but your argument seems good. For the sake of clarity, I'll denote by $b$ and $c$ elements such that $ab=e$ and $bc=e$. Your argument becomes
    $$
    b=be=b(ab)=(ba)b
    $$

    then
    $$
    e=bc=((ba)b)c=(ba)(bc)=(ba)e=ba
    $$

    Therefore
    $$
    ea=(ab)a=a(ba)=ae=a
    $$

    Good work!



    The operation you give the Cayley table of does not define a group structure on ${e,a,b}$, because $ea=eb$, but $ane b$ (this is better than saying that “we can show that $a=b$, which is false at the outset). So long as you verify it is associative, you have your counterexample.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      You don't need to verify that the operation is defined and associative: that's already given.



      What you need to show is that





      1. $e$ is a left identity as well as a right identity (the latter condition is given)


      2. $a^{-1}a=e$, for every $ain G$


      On the other hand, using $a^{-1}$ may be misleading, but your argument seems good. For the sake of clarity, I'll denote by $b$ and $c$ elements such that $ab=e$ and $bc=e$. Your argument becomes
      $$
      b=be=b(ab)=(ba)b
      $$

      then
      $$
      e=bc=((ba)b)c=(ba)(bc)=(ba)e=ba
      $$

      Therefore
      $$
      ea=(ab)a=a(ba)=ae=a
      $$

      Good work!



      The operation you give the Cayley table of does not define a group structure on ${e,a,b}$, because $ea=eb$, but $ane b$ (this is better than saying that “we can show that $a=b$, which is false at the outset). So long as you verify it is associative, you have your counterexample.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        You don't need to verify that the operation is defined and associative: that's already given.



        What you need to show is that





        1. $e$ is a left identity as well as a right identity (the latter condition is given)


        2. $a^{-1}a=e$, for every $ain G$


        On the other hand, using $a^{-1}$ may be misleading, but your argument seems good. For the sake of clarity, I'll denote by $b$ and $c$ elements such that $ab=e$ and $bc=e$. Your argument becomes
        $$
        b=be=b(ab)=(ba)b
        $$

        then
        $$
        e=bc=((ba)b)c=(ba)(bc)=(ba)e=ba
        $$

        Therefore
        $$
        ea=(ab)a=a(ba)=ae=a
        $$

        Good work!



        The operation you give the Cayley table of does not define a group structure on ${e,a,b}$, because $ea=eb$, but $ane b$ (this is better than saying that “we can show that $a=b$, which is false at the outset). So long as you verify it is associative, you have your counterexample.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        You don't need to verify that the operation is defined and associative: that's already given.



        What you need to show is that





        1. $e$ is a left identity as well as a right identity (the latter condition is given)


        2. $a^{-1}a=e$, for every $ain G$


        On the other hand, using $a^{-1}$ may be misleading, but your argument seems good. For the sake of clarity, I'll denote by $b$ and $c$ elements such that $ab=e$ and $bc=e$. Your argument becomes
        $$
        b=be=b(ab)=(ba)b
        $$

        then
        $$
        e=bc=((ba)b)c=(ba)(bc)=(ba)e=ba
        $$

        Therefore
        $$
        ea=(ab)a=a(ba)=ae=a
        $$

        Good work!



        The operation you give the Cayley table of does not define a group structure on ${e,a,b}$, because $ea=eb$, but $ane b$ (this is better than saying that “we can show that $a=b$, which is false at the outset). So long as you verify it is associative, you have your counterexample.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 10 at 11:02









        egregegreg

        185k1486208




        185k1486208






























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