Show that this matrix is not of the form $exp A$ for any $2times 2$ matrix $A$.
$begingroup$
For a complete normed vector space $X$, we define the mapping
$$exp:mathcal{L}(X;X)rightarrow mathcal{L}(X;X)$$
$$exp A:=E+frac{1}{1!}A+frac{1}{2!}A^2+cdots + frac{1}{n!}A^n+cdots.$$
Here $E$ is identity.
Show that begin{pmatrix}
-1 & 0\
1&-1
end{pmatrix}
is not of the form $exp A$ for any $2times 2$ matrix $A$.
I appreciate any help!
Edit: I think in this problem $A$ is assumed to be complex.
Edit 2: Now I think that the matrix is of the form $exp A$ for some complex matrix $A$. For example $A=begin{pmatrix} pi i&0\ -1& pi iend{pmatrix}$.
linear-algebra analysis
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For a complete normed vector space $X$, we define the mapping
$$exp:mathcal{L}(X;X)rightarrow mathcal{L}(X;X)$$
$$exp A:=E+frac{1}{1!}A+frac{1}{2!}A^2+cdots + frac{1}{n!}A^n+cdots.$$
Here $E$ is identity.
Show that begin{pmatrix}
-1 & 0\
1&-1
end{pmatrix}
is not of the form $exp A$ for any $2times 2$ matrix $A$.
I appreciate any help!
Edit: I think in this problem $A$ is assumed to be complex.
Edit 2: Now I think that the matrix is of the form $exp A$ for some complex matrix $A$. For example $A=begin{pmatrix} pi i&0\ -1& pi iend{pmatrix}$.
linear-algebra analysis
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Should $A$ be real or complex?
$endgroup$
– A. Pongrácz
Jan 10 at 11:42
$begingroup$
@A.Pongrácz I think it’s assumed to be complex.
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 11:43
$begingroup$
see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Matrix_function#Jordan_decomposition
$endgroup$
– daw
Jan 10 at 12:45
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For a complete normed vector space $X$, we define the mapping
$$exp:mathcal{L}(X;X)rightarrow mathcal{L}(X;X)$$
$$exp A:=E+frac{1}{1!}A+frac{1}{2!}A^2+cdots + frac{1}{n!}A^n+cdots.$$
Here $E$ is identity.
Show that begin{pmatrix}
-1 & 0\
1&-1
end{pmatrix}
is not of the form $exp A$ for any $2times 2$ matrix $A$.
I appreciate any help!
Edit: I think in this problem $A$ is assumed to be complex.
Edit 2: Now I think that the matrix is of the form $exp A$ for some complex matrix $A$. For example $A=begin{pmatrix} pi i&0\ -1& pi iend{pmatrix}$.
linear-algebra analysis
$endgroup$
For a complete normed vector space $X$, we define the mapping
$$exp:mathcal{L}(X;X)rightarrow mathcal{L}(X;X)$$
$$exp A:=E+frac{1}{1!}A+frac{1}{2!}A^2+cdots + frac{1}{n!}A^n+cdots.$$
Here $E$ is identity.
Show that begin{pmatrix}
-1 & 0\
1&-1
end{pmatrix}
is not of the form $exp A$ for any $2times 2$ matrix $A$.
I appreciate any help!
Edit: I think in this problem $A$ is assumed to be complex.
Edit 2: Now I think that the matrix is of the form $exp A$ for some complex matrix $A$. For example $A=begin{pmatrix} pi i&0\ -1& pi iend{pmatrix}$.
linear-algebra analysis
linear-algebra analysis
edited Jan 10 at 13:22
Jiu
asked Jan 10 at 11:17
JiuJiu
517113
517113
$begingroup$
Should $A$ be real or complex?
$endgroup$
– A. Pongrácz
Jan 10 at 11:42
$begingroup$
@A.Pongrácz I think it’s assumed to be complex.
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 11:43
$begingroup$
see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Matrix_function#Jordan_decomposition
$endgroup$
– daw
Jan 10 at 12:45
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Should $A$ be real or complex?
$endgroup$
– A. Pongrácz
Jan 10 at 11:42
$begingroup$
@A.Pongrácz I think it’s assumed to be complex.
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 11:43
$begingroup$
see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Matrix_function#Jordan_decomposition
$endgroup$
– daw
Jan 10 at 12:45
$begingroup$
Should $A$ be real or complex?
$endgroup$
– A. Pongrácz
Jan 10 at 11:42
$begingroup$
Should $A$ be real or complex?
$endgroup$
– A. Pongrácz
Jan 10 at 11:42
$begingroup$
@A.Pongrácz I think it’s assumed to be complex.
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 11:43
$begingroup$
@A.Pongrácz I think it’s assumed to be complex.
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 11:43
$begingroup$
see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Matrix_function#Jordan_decomposition
$endgroup$
– daw
Jan 10 at 12:45
$begingroup$
see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Matrix_function#Jordan_decomposition
$endgroup$
– daw
Jan 10 at 12:45
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Assume the given matrix is of the form $exp(A)$.
Put $A$ in its Jordan normal form: $A = P^{-1}TP$, with $T$ lower triangular.
Then $exp(A) = P^{-1}exp(T)P$. But since $exp(A)$ is obviously already presented into its Jordan normal form, and since the Jordan form is unique (up to the permutation of the Jordan blocks, that reduce to a trivial block here), we must have $P = E$, that is, $exp(A) = exp(T)$. Then observe that $exp(T)_{1,1} = exp(T_{1,1})$ to obtain a contradiction.
EDIT: there is a problem with this argument: it is not possible to assert that $P = E$. To fix this bug, you have to show first that $P$ must be lower triangular (seek $P$ lower triangular explicitly with unknowns), hence (!)
$$(P^{-1}exp(T)P)_{1,1} = exp(T)_{1,1}= exp(T_{1,1})$$.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Nice argument. In the future, please consider giving hints instead of complete solutions, especially when the author of the post has shown no efforts in solving the problem. (In fact, the post could have been closed for that reason.) In this particular case, I did not vote for closing, because the first idea is nontrivial (so in some sense, it was understandable that the author could not even start the solution). But I was about to post my answer which would have been the following: "Hint: Compute $exp(J)$ where $J$ is in Jordan normal form." Just a suggestion, think about it.
$endgroup$
– A. Pongrácz
Jan 10 at 11:48
$begingroup$
Yes, I will think about that. Thx.
$endgroup$
– MikeTeX
Jan 10 at 12:21
2
$begingroup$
This argument only shows that this matrix is not of the form $exp A $ for a real matrix $A$ right?
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 12:40
$begingroup$
Indeed, that's what I've assumed.
$endgroup$
– MikeTeX
Jan 10 at 12:55
$begingroup$
Now I think that the matrix is of the form $exp A$ for some complex matrix $A$. I edited the question. Do you think it is correct?
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 13:20
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Here is the beginning of an answer in the case where $A$ is not supposed to be real, that can probably work with some more work.
Assume that the given matrix is of the form $exp(A)$. It is well known that $A$ can be triangulated, that is $A = P^{-1}TP$ with $T$ lower triangular. Hence $exp(A) = P^{-1}exp(T) P$. Since the determinant and the trace of a matrix is invariant under matrix conjugation, you have
$det(exp(T)) = det(exp(A)) = 1$ and $Tr(exp(T)) = Tr(exp(A)) = -2$.
Solving, it follows that the two diagonal elements of $exp(T)$ are equal to $-1$. Now, these elements are the $exp$ of the diagonal elements of $T$ (hence $T$ cannot be real otherwise $Tr(T) > 0$ in contradiction with $Tr(T) = -2$). Thus, the diagonal elements of $T$ are both of the form $ipi + 2kpi$. Working out the powers of $T$, it should be possible to show that $exp(T)$ cannot have a 1 below the diagonal (not checked).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $U=begin{pmatrix}-1&0\1&-1end{pmatrix}=-I+N$, where $N^2=0$.
Proposition 1. $U$ cannot be written in the form $e^A$ where $A$ is real.
Proof. If $e^A=U$, then $-I+N=(e^{A/2})^2=B^2$ is a square of a real matrix $B$ that is not diagonalizable over $mathbb{C}$ (because $N$ is not diagonalizable). Then $B$ has a double eigenvalue $pm i$; thus $tr(B)=pm 2i$ is not real, a contradiction.
Proposition 2. $U$ is the exponential of a complex matrix.
Proof. That is true iff $det(U)not= 0$ and, here, $det(U)=1$.
A particular solution is given by the OP; $A=ipi I_2-N$.
Indeed $e^A=e^{ipi} I_2e^{-N}=-(I-N)=U$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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3 Answers
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3 Answers
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$begingroup$
Assume the given matrix is of the form $exp(A)$.
Put $A$ in its Jordan normal form: $A = P^{-1}TP$, with $T$ lower triangular.
Then $exp(A) = P^{-1}exp(T)P$. But since $exp(A)$ is obviously already presented into its Jordan normal form, and since the Jordan form is unique (up to the permutation of the Jordan blocks, that reduce to a trivial block here), we must have $P = E$, that is, $exp(A) = exp(T)$. Then observe that $exp(T)_{1,1} = exp(T_{1,1})$ to obtain a contradiction.
EDIT: there is a problem with this argument: it is not possible to assert that $P = E$. To fix this bug, you have to show first that $P$ must be lower triangular (seek $P$ lower triangular explicitly with unknowns), hence (!)
$$(P^{-1}exp(T)P)_{1,1} = exp(T)_{1,1}= exp(T_{1,1})$$.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Nice argument. In the future, please consider giving hints instead of complete solutions, especially when the author of the post has shown no efforts in solving the problem. (In fact, the post could have been closed for that reason.) In this particular case, I did not vote for closing, because the first idea is nontrivial (so in some sense, it was understandable that the author could not even start the solution). But I was about to post my answer which would have been the following: "Hint: Compute $exp(J)$ where $J$ is in Jordan normal form." Just a suggestion, think about it.
$endgroup$
– A. Pongrácz
Jan 10 at 11:48
$begingroup$
Yes, I will think about that. Thx.
$endgroup$
– MikeTeX
Jan 10 at 12:21
2
$begingroup$
This argument only shows that this matrix is not of the form $exp A $ for a real matrix $A$ right?
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 12:40
$begingroup$
Indeed, that's what I've assumed.
$endgroup$
– MikeTeX
Jan 10 at 12:55
$begingroup$
Now I think that the matrix is of the form $exp A$ for some complex matrix $A$. I edited the question. Do you think it is correct?
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 13:20
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Assume the given matrix is of the form $exp(A)$.
Put $A$ in its Jordan normal form: $A = P^{-1}TP$, with $T$ lower triangular.
Then $exp(A) = P^{-1}exp(T)P$. But since $exp(A)$ is obviously already presented into its Jordan normal form, and since the Jordan form is unique (up to the permutation of the Jordan blocks, that reduce to a trivial block here), we must have $P = E$, that is, $exp(A) = exp(T)$. Then observe that $exp(T)_{1,1} = exp(T_{1,1})$ to obtain a contradiction.
EDIT: there is a problem with this argument: it is not possible to assert that $P = E$. To fix this bug, you have to show first that $P$ must be lower triangular (seek $P$ lower triangular explicitly with unknowns), hence (!)
$$(P^{-1}exp(T)P)_{1,1} = exp(T)_{1,1}= exp(T_{1,1})$$.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Nice argument. In the future, please consider giving hints instead of complete solutions, especially when the author of the post has shown no efforts in solving the problem. (In fact, the post could have been closed for that reason.) In this particular case, I did not vote for closing, because the first idea is nontrivial (so in some sense, it was understandable that the author could not even start the solution). But I was about to post my answer which would have been the following: "Hint: Compute $exp(J)$ where $J$ is in Jordan normal form." Just a suggestion, think about it.
$endgroup$
– A. Pongrácz
Jan 10 at 11:48
$begingroup$
Yes, I will think about that. Thx.
$endgroup$
– MikeTeX
Jan 10 at 12:21
2
$begingroup$
This argument only shows that this matrix is not of the form $exp A $ for a real matrix $A$ right?
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 12:40
$begingroup$
Indeed, that's what I've assumed.
$endgroup$
– MikeTeX
Jan 10 at 12:55
$begingroup$
Now I think that the matrix is of the form $exp A$ for some complex matrix $A$. I edited the question. Do you think it is correct?
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 13:20
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Assume the given matrix is of the form $exp(A)$.
Put $A$ in its Jordan normal form: $A = P^{-1}TP$, with $T$ lower triangular.
Then $exp(A) = P^{-1}exp(T)P$. But since $exp(A)$ is obviously already presented into its Jordan normal form, and since the Jordan form is unique (up to the permutation of the Jordan blocks, that reduce to a trivial block here), we must have $P = E$, that is, $exp(A) = exp(T)$. Then observe that $exp(T)_{1,1} = exp(T_{1,1})$ to obtain a contradiction.
EDIT: there is a problem with this argument: it is not possible to assert that $P = E$. To fix this bug, you have to show first that $P$ must be lower triangular (seek $P$ lower triangular explicitly with unknowns), hence (!)
$$(P^{-1}exp(T)P)_{1,1} = exp(T)_{1,1}= exp(T_{1,1})$$.
$endgroup$
Assume the given matrix is of the form $exp(A)$.
Put $A$ in its Jordan normal form: $A = P^{-1}TP$, with $T$ lower triangular.
Then $exp(A) = P^{-1}exp(T)P$. But since $exp(A)$ is obviously already presented into its Jordan normal form, and since the Jordan form is unique (up to the permutation of the Jordan blocks, that reduce to a trivial block here), we must have $P = E$, that is, $exp(A) = exp(T)$. Then observe that $exp(T)_{1,1} = exp(T_{1,1})$ to obtain a contradiction.
EDIT: there is a problem with this argument: it is not possible to assert that $P = E$. To fix this bug, you have to show first that $P$ must be lower triangular (seek $P$ lower triangular explicitly with unknowns), hence (!)
$$(P^{-1}exp(T)P)_{1,1} = exp(T)_{1,1}= exp(T_{1,1})$$.
edited Jan 10 at 12:21
answered Jan 10 at 11:42
MikeTeXMikeTeX
1,278412
1,278412
2
$begingroup$
Nice argument. In the future, please consider giving hints instead of complete solutions, especially when the author of the post has shown no efforts in solving the problem. (In fact, the post could have been closed for that reason.) In this particular case, I did not vote for closing, because the first idea is nontrivial (so in some sense, it was understandable that the author could not even start the solution). But I was about to post my answer which would have been the following: "Hint: Compute $exp(J)$ where $J$ is in Jordan normal form." Just a suggestion, think about it.
$endgroup$
– A. Pongrácz
Jan 10 at 11:48
$begingroup$
Yes, I will think about that. Thx.
$endgroup$
– MikeTeX
Jan 10 at 12:21
2
$begingroup$
This argument only shows that this matrix is not of the form $exp A $ for a real matrix $A$ right?
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 12:40
$begingroup$
Indeed, that's what I've assumed.
$endgroup$
– MikeTeX
Jan 10 at 12:55
$begingroup$
Now I think that the matrix is of the form $exp A$ for some complex matrix $A$. I edited the question. Do you think it is correct?
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 13:20
|
show 1 more comment
2
$begingroup$
Nice argument. In the future, please consider giving hints instead of complete solutions, especially when the author of the post has shown no efforts in solving the problem. (In fact, the post could have been closed for that reason.) In this particular case, I did not vote for closing, because the first idea is nontrivial (so in some sense, it was understandable that the author could not even start the solution). But I was about to post my answer which would have been the following: "Hint: Compute $exp(J)$ where $J$ is in Jordan normal form." Just a suggestion, think about it.
$endgroup$
– A. Pongrácz
Jan 10 at 11:48
$begingroup$
Yes, I will think about that. Thx.
$endgroup$
– MikeTeX
Jan 10 at 12:21
2
$begingroup$
This argument only shows that this matrix is not of the form $exp A $ for a real matrix $A$ right?
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 12:40
$begingroup$
Indeed, that's what I've assumed.
$endgroup$
– MikeTeX
Jan 10 at 12:55
$begingroup$
Now I think that the matrix is of the form $exp A$ for some complex matrix $A$. I edited the question. Do you think it is correct?
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 13:20
2
2
$begingroup$
Nice argument. In the future, please consider giving hints instead of complete solutions, especially when the author of the post has shown no efforts in solving the problem. (In fact, the post could have been closed for that reason.) In this particular case, I did not vote for closing, because the first idea is nontrivial (so in some sense, it was understandable that the author could not even start the solution). But I was about to post my answer which would have been the following: "Hint: Compute $exp(J)$ where $J$ is in Jordan normal form." Just a suggestion, think about it.
$endgroup$
– A. Pongrácz
Jan 10 at 11:48
$begingroup$
Nice argument. In the future, please consider giving hints instead of complete solutions, especially when the author of the post has shown no efforts in solving the problem. (In fact, the post could have been closed for that reason.) In this particular case, I did not vote for closing, because the first idea is nontrivial (so in some sense, it was understandable that the author could not even start the solution). But I was about to post my answer which would have been the following: "Hint: Compute $exp(J)$ where $J$ is in Jordan normal form." Just a suggestion, think about it.
$endgroup$
– A. Pongrácz
Jan 10 at 11:48
$begingroup$
Yes, I will think about that. Thx.
$endgroup$
– MikeTeX
Jan 10 at 12:21
$begingroup$
Yes, I will think about that. Thx.
$endgroup$
– MikeTeX
Jan 10 at 12:21
2
2
$begingroup$
This argument only shows that this matrix is not of the form $exp A $ for a real matrix $A$ right?
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 12:40
$begingroup$
This argument only shows that this matrix is not of the form $exp A $ for a real matrix $A$ right?
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 12:40
$begingroup$
Indeed, that's what I've assumed.
$endgroup$
– MikeTeX
Jan 10 at 12:55
$begingroup$
Indeed, that's what I've assumed.
$endgroup$
– MikeTeX
Jan 10 at 12:55
$begingroup$
Now I think that the matrix is of the form $exp A$ for some complex matrix $A$. I edited the question. Do you think it is correct?
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 13:20
$begingroup$
Now I think that the matrix is of the form $exp A$ for some complex matrix $A$. I edited the question. Do you think it is correct?
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 13:20
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Here is the beginning of an answer in the case where $A$ is not supposed to be real, that can probably work with some more work.
Assume that the given matrix is of the form $exp(A)$. It is well known that $A$ can be triangulated, that is $A = P^{-1}TP$ with $T$ lower triangular. Hence $exp(A) = P^{-1}exp(T) P$. Since the determinant and the trace of a matrix is invariant under matrix conjugation, you have
$det(exp(T)) = det(exp(A)) = 1$ and $Tr(exp(T)) = Tr(exp(A)) = -2$.
Solving, it follows that the two diagonal elements of $exp(T)$ are equal to $-1$. Now, these elements are the $exp$ of the diagonal elements of $T$ (hence $T$ cannot be real otherwise $Tr(T) > 0$ in contradiction with $Tr(T) = -2$). Thus, the diagonal elements of $T$ are both of the form $ipi + 2kpi$. Working out the powers of $T$, it should be possible to show that $exp(T)$ cannot have a 1 below the diagonal (not checked).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here is the beginning of an answer in the case where $A$ is not supposed to be real, that can probably work with some more work.
Assume that the given matrix is of the form $exp(A)$. It is well known that $A$ can be triangulated, that is $A = P^{-1}TP$ with $T$ lower triangular. Hence $exp(A) = P^{-1}exp(T) P$. Since the determinant and the trace of a matrix is invariant under matrix conjugation, you have
$det(exp(T)) = det(exp(A)) = 1$ and $Tr(exp(T)) = Tr(exp(A)) = -2$.
Solving, it follows that the two diagonal elements of $exp(T)$ are equal to $-1$. Now, these elements are the $exp$ of the diagonal elements of $T$ (hence $T$ cannot be real otherwise $Tr(T) > 0$ in contradiction with $Tr(T) = -2$). Thus, the diagonal elements of $T$ are both of the form $ipi + 2kpi$. Working out the powers of $T$, it should be possible to show that $exp(T)$ cannot have a 1 below the diagonal (not checked).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here is the beginning of an answer in the case where $A$ is not supposed to be real, that can probably work with some more work.
Assume that the given matrix is of the form $exp(A)$. It is well known that $A$ can be triangulated, that is $A = P^{-1}TP$ with $T$ lower triangular. Hence $exp(A) = P^{-1}exp(T) P$. Since the determinant and the trace of a matrix is invariant under matrix conjugation, you have
$det(exp(T)) = det(exp(A)) = 1$ and $Tr(exp(T)) = Tr(exp(A)) = -2$.
Solving, it follows that the two diagonal elements of $exp(T)$ are equal to $-1$. Now, these elements are the $exp$ of the diagonal elements of $T$ (hence $T$ cannot be real otherwise $Tr(T) > 0$ in contradiction with $Tr(T) = -2$). Thus, the diagonal elements of $T$ are both of the form $ipi + 2kpi$. Working out the powers of $T$, it should be possible to show that $exp(T)$ cannot have a 1 below the diagonal (not checked).
$endgroup$
Here is the beginning of an answer in the case where $A$ is not supposed to be real, that can probably work with some more work.
Assume that the given matrix is of the form $exp(A)$. It is well known that $A$ can be triangulated, that is $A = P^{-1}TP$ with $T$ lower triangular. Hence $exp(A) = P^{-1}exp(T) P$. Since the determinant and the trace of a matrix is invariant under matrix conjugation, you have
$det(exp(T)) = det(exp(A)) = 1$ and $Tr(exp(T)) = Tr(exp(A)) = -2$.
Solving, it follows that the two diagonal elements of $exp(T)$ are equal to $-1$. Now, these elements are the $exp$ of the diagonal elements of $T$ (hence $T$ cannot be real otherwise $Tr(T) > 0$ in contradiction with $Tr(T) = -2$). Thus, the diagonal elements of $T$ are both of the form $ipi + 2kpi$. Working out the powers of $T$, it should be possible to show that $exp(T)$ cannot have a 1 below the diagonal (not checked).
answered Jan 10 at 13:30
MikeTeXMikeTeX
1,278412
1,278412
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $U=begin{pmatrix}-1&0\1&-1end{pmatrix}=-I+N$, where $N^2=0$.
Proposition 1. $U$ cannot be written in the form $e^A$ where $A$ is real.
Proof. If $e^A=U$, then $-I+N=(e^{A/2})^2=B^2$ is a square of a real matrix $B$ that is not diagonalizable over $mathbb{C}$ (because $N$ is not diagonalizable). Then $B$ has a double eigenvalue $pm i$; thus $tr(B)=pm 2i$ is not real, a contradiction.
Proposition 2. $U$ is the exponential of a complex matrix.
Proof. That is true iff $det(U)not= 0$ and, here, $det(U)=1$.
A particular solution is given by the OP; $A=ipi I_2-N$.
Indeed $e^A=e^{ipi} I_2e^{-N}=-(I-N)=U$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $U=begin{pmatrix}-1&0\1&-1end{pmatrix}=-I+N$, where $N^2=0$.
Proposition 1. $U$ cannot be written in the form $e^A$ where $A$ is real.
Proof. If $e^A=U$, then $-I+N=(e^{A/2})^2=B^2$ is a square of a real matrix $B$ that is not diagonalizable over $mathbb{C}$ (because $N$ is not diagonalizable). Then $B$ has a double eigenvalue $pm i$; thus $tr(B)=pm 2i$ is not real, a contradiction.
Proposition 2. $U$ is the exponential of a complex matrix.
Proof. That is true iff $det(U)not= 0$ and, here, $det(U)=1$.
A particular solution is given by the OP; $A=ipi I_2-N$.
Indeed $e^A=e^{ipi} I_2e^{-N}=-(I-N)=U$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $U=begin{pmatrix}-1&0\1&-1end{pmatrix}=-I+N$, where $N^2=0$.
Proposition 1. $U$ cannot be written in the form $e^A$ where $A$ is real.
Proof. If $e^A=U$, then $-I+N=(e^{A/2})^2=B^2$ is a square of a real matrix $B$ that is not diagonalizable over $mathbb{C}$ (because $N$ is not diagonalizable). Then $B$ has a double eigenvalue $pm i$; thus $tr(B)=pm 2i$ is not real, a contradiction.
Proposition 2. $U$ is the exponential of a complex matrix.
Proof. That is true iff $det(U)not= 0$ and, here, $det(U)=1$.
A particular solution is given by the OP; $A=ipi I_2-N$.
Indeed $e^A=e^{ipi} I_2e^{-N}=-(I-N)=U$.
$endgroup$
Let $U=begin{pmatrix}-1&0\1&-1end{pmatrix}=-I+N$, where $N^2=0$.
Proposition 1. $U$ cannot be written in the form $e^A$ where $A$ is real.
Proof. If $e^A=U$, then $-I+N=(e^{A/2})^2=B^2$ is a square of a real matrix $B$ that is not diagonalizable over $mathbb{C}$ (because $N$ is not diagonalizable). Then $B$ has a double eigenvalue $pm i$; thus $tr(B)=pm 2i$ is not real, a contradiction.
Proposition 2. $U$ is the exponential of a complex matrix.
Proof. That is true iff $det(U)not= 0$ and, here, $det(U)=1$.
A particular solution is given by the OP; $A=ipi I_2-N$.
Indeed $e^A=e^{ipi} I_2e^{-N}=-(I-N)=U$.
answered Jan 10 at 18:43
loup blancloup blanc
24.2k21851
24.2k21851
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Should $A$ be real or complex?
$endgroup$
– A. Pongrácz
Jan 10 at 11:42
$begingroup$
@A.Pongrácz I think it’s assumed to be complex.
$endgroup$
– Jiu
Jan 10 at 11:43
$begingroup$
see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Matrix_function#Jordan_decomposition
$endgroup$
– daw
Jan 10 at 12:45