Covering a circle with rectangular labels











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I've got an applied math problem. Suppose that you have a circle of diameter $1$ (we can scale units so that this is the case) and labels of width $d_1, d_2, ..., d_n$ (the labels can be as long as you wish, but their width is fixed) where $d_1 + dots + d_n < 1.$



Can you cover the circle with these labels? I suspect that it's impossible, but I can't prove this for $n>2.$ If it's possible, how low can you make the sum?



Edit: I have placed a bounty to be awarded for full resolution (either a proof or disproof, as the possibility that the problem is independent of ZFC seems to be highly unlikely here) of the earlier conjecture.










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  • I am pretty sure I have seen this problem before and there is a beautiful solution that uses a clever embedding of the original circle into a tridimensional sphere of radius 1.
    – Daniel
    Dec 1 at 3:02






  • 1




    Searching on mathstackexchange I found essentially the argument on this post
    – Daniel
    Dec 1 at 3:03








  • 1




    To explain it briefly, imagine your circle dividing a diameter $1$ sphere in $mathbb{R}^3$ in half and suppose that the rectangles indeed cover the original circle. For each rectangle, consider its projection on the sphere, which is a ring of area $2pi d_j cdot frac12$ (radius of sphere is $frac12$) where $d_j$ is the width of the rectangle. Since the rectangles cover the circle, we conclude that the rings must cover the sphere. But the total area covered by the rings is $sum_{j=1}^n pi d_j < pi$ while the surface area of the sphere is $4pi (1/2)^2 = pi$.
    – Daniel
    Dec 1 at 3:11










  • @Daniel Since your comment answers it, maybe make it an answer? [I get it if you don't want to since it has the basic answer you mention in previous comment.]
    – coffeemath
    Dec 1 at 4:03















up vote
2
down vote

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I've got an applied math problem. Suppose that you have a circle of diameter $1$ (we can scale units so that this is the case) and labels of width $d_1, d_2, ..., d_n$ (the labels can be as long as you wish, but their width is fixed) where $d_1 + dots + d_n < 1.$



Can you cover the circle with these labels? I suspect that it's impossible, but I can't prove this for $n>2.$ If it's possible, how low can you make the sum?



Edit: I have placed a bounty to be awarded for full resolution (either a proof or disproof, as the possibility that the problem is independent of ZFC seems to be highly unlikely here) of the earlier conjecture.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • I am pretty sure I have seen this problem before and there is a beautiful solution that uses a clever embedding of the original circle into a tridimensional sphere of radius 1.
    – Daniel
    Dec 1 at 3:02






  • 1




    Searching on mathstackexchange I found essentially the argument on this post
    – Daniel
    Dec 1 at 3:03








  • 1




    To explain it briefly, imagine your circle dividing a diameter $1$ sphere in $mathbb{R}^3$ in half and suppose that the rectangles indeed cover the original circle. For each rectangle, consider its projection on the sphere, which is a ring of area $2pi d_j cdot frac12$ (radius of sphere is $frac12$) where $d_j$ is the width of the rectangle. Since the rectangles cover the circle, we conclude that the rings must cover the sphere. But the total area covered by the rings is $sum_{j=1}^n pi d_j < pi$ while the surface area of the sphere is $4pi (1/2)^2 = pi$.
    – Daniel
    Dec 1 at 3:11










  • @Daniel Since your comment answers it, maybe make it an answer? [I get it if you don't want to since it has the basic answer you mention in previous comment.]
    – coffeemath
    Dec 1 at 4:03













up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1






1





I've got an applied math problem. Suppose that you have a circle of diameter $1$ (we can scale units so that this is the case) and labels of width $d_1, d_2, ..., d_n$ (the labels can be as long as you wish, but their width is fixed) where $d_1 + dots + d_n < 1.$



Can you cover the circle with these labels? I suspect that it's impossible, but I can't prove this for $n>2.$ If it's possible, how low can you make the sum?



Edit: I have placed a bounty to be awarded for full resolution (either a proof or disproof, as the possibility that the problem is independent of ZFC seems to be highly unlikely here) of the earlier conjecture.










share|cite|improve this question















I've got an applied math problem. Suppose that you have a circle of diameter $1$ (we can scale units so that this is the case) and labels of width $d_1, d_2, ..., d_n$ (the labels can be as long as you wish, but their width is fixed) where $d_1 + dots + d_n < 1.$



Can you cover the circle with these labels? I suspect that it's impossible, but I can't prove this for $n>2.$ If it's possible, how low can you make the sum?



Edit: I have placed a bounty to be awarded for full resolution (either a proof or disproof, as the possibility that the problem is independent of ZFC seems to be highly unlikely here) of the earlier conjecture.







circle rectangles






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edited Dec 1 at 2:36

























asked Nov 28 at 22:00









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  • I am pretty sure I have seen this problem before and there is a beautiful solution that uses a clever embedding of the original circle into a tridimensional sphere of radius 1.
    – Daniel
    Dec 1 at 3:02






  • 1




    Searching on mathstackexchange I found essentially the argument on this post
    – Daniel
    Dec 1 at 3:03








  • 1




    To explain it briefly, imagine your circle dividing a diameter $1$ sphere in $mathbb{R}^3$ in half and suppose that the rectangles indeed cover the original circle. For each rectangle, consider its projection on the sphere, which is a ring of area $2pi d_j cdot frac12$ (radius of sphere is $frac12$) where $d_j$ is the width of the rectangle. Since the rectangles cover the circle, we conclude that the rings must cover the sphere. But the total area covered by the rings is $sum_{j=1}^n pi d_j < pi$ while the surface area of the sphere is $4pi (1/2)^2 = pi$.
    – Daniel
    Dec 1 at 3:11










  • @Daniel Since your comment answers it, maybe make it an answer? [I get it if you don't want to since it has the basic answer you mention in previous comment.]
    – coffeemath
    Dec 1 at 4:03


















  • I am pretty sure I have seen this problem before and there is a beautiful solution that uses a clever embedding of the original circle into a tridimensional sphere of radius 1.
    – Daniel
    Dec 1 at 3:02






  • 1




    Searching on mathstackexchange I found essentially the argument on this post
    – Daniel
    Dec 1 at 3:03








  • 1




    To explain it briefly, imagine your circle dividing a diameter $1$ sphere in $mathbb{R}^3$ in half and suppose that the rectangles indeed cover the original circle. For each rectangle, consider its projection on the sphere, which is a ring of area $2pi d_j cdot frac12$ (radius of sphere is $frac12$) where $d_j$ is the width of the rectangle. Since the rectangles cover the circle, we conclude that the rings must cover the sphere. But the total area covered by the rings is $sum_{j=1}^n pi d_j < pi$ while the surface area of the sphere is $4pi (1/2)^2 = pi$.
    – Daniel
    Dec 1 at 3:11










  • @Daniel Since your comment answers it, maybe make it an answer? [I get it if you don't want to since it has the basic answer you mention in previous comment.]
    – coffeemath
    Dec 1 at 4:03
















I am pretty sure I have seen this problem before and there is a beautiful solution that uses a clever embedding of the original circle into a tridimensional sphere of radius 1.
– Daniel
Dec 1 at 3:02




I am pretty sure I have seen this problem before and there is a beautiful solution that uses a clever embedding of the original circle into a tridimensional sphere of radius 1.
– Daniel
Dec 1 at 3:02




1




1




Searching on mathstackexchange I found essentially the argument on this post
– Daniel
Dec 1 at 3:03






Searching on mathstackexchange I found essentially the argument on this post
– Daniel
Dec 1 at 3:03






1




1




To explain it briefly, imagine your circle dividing a diameter $1$ sphere in $mathbb{R}^3$ in half and suppose that the rectangles indeed cover the original circle. For each rectangle, consider its projection on the sphere, which is a ring of area $2pi d_j cdot frac12$ (radius of sphere is $frac12$) where $d_j$ is the width of the rectangle. Since the rectangles cover the circle, we conclude that the rings must cover the sphere. But the total area covered by the rings is $sum_{j=1}^n pi d_j < pi$ while the surface area of the sphere is $4pi (1/2)^2 = pi$.
– Daniel
Dec 1 at 3:11




To explain it briefly, imagine your circle dividing a diameter $1$ sphere in $mathbb{R}^3$ in half and suppose that the rectangles indeed cover the original circle. For each rectangle, consider its projection on the sphere, which is a ring of area $2pi d_j cdot frac12$ (radius of sphere is $frac12$) where $d_j$ is the width of the rectangle. Since the rectangles cover the circle, we conclude that the rings must cover the sphere. But the total area covered by the rings is $sum_{j=1}^n pi d_j < pi$ while the surface area of the sphere is $4pi (1/2)^2 = pi$.
– Daniel
Dec 1 at 3:11












@Daniel Since your comment answers it, maybe make it an answer? [I get it if you don't want to since it has the basic answer you mention in previous comment.]
– coffeemath
Dec 1 at 4:03




@Daniel Since your comment answers it, maybe make it an answer? [I get it if you don't want to since it has the basic answer you mention in previous comment.]
– coffeemath
Dec 1 at 4:03










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Turning the above comment into an answer.



Consider a sphere of diameter $1$ in $mathbb{R}^3$ and identify the original circle of diameter $1$ with the intersection of the sphere with a plane that divides it precisely in half.



We prove by contradiction that it is impossible that $n$ rectangles of width $d_1, ldots, d_n$ and $sum_{j=1}^n d_j < 1$ cover the circle. Indeed, suppose that the rectangles cover the original circle. For each rectangle, consider its projection on the sphere. Since the sphere has radius $frac12$, the projection is a ring of area
$$
A_j = 2pi d_j cdot frac12 = pi d_j,
$$

where $d_j$ is the width of the rectangle. Since the rectangles cover the circle, we conclude that the rings must cover the sphere implying that
$$
text{Area of sphere} le sum_{j=1}^n A_j = pi sum_{j=1}^n d_j < pi.
$$

However, the surface area of the sphere is $4 pi (frac12)^2 = pi$ and we conclude $pi < pi$, reaching a contradiction.






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    up vote
    3
    down vote



    accepted
    +50










    Turning the above comment into an answer.



    Consider a sphere of diameter $1$ in $mathbb{R}^3$ and identify the original circle of diameter $1$ with the intersection of the sphere with a plane that divides it precisely in half.



    We prove by contradiction that it is impossible that $n$ rectangles of width $d_1, ldots, d_n$ and $sum_{j=1}^n d_j < 1$ cover the circle. Indeed, suppose that the rectangles cover the original circle. For each rectangle, consider its projection on the sphere. Since the sphere has radius $frac12$, the projection is a ring of area
    $$
    A_j = 2pi d_j cdot frac12 = pi d_j,
    $$

    where $d_j$ is the width of the rectangle. Since the rectangles cover the circle, we conclude that the rings must cover the sphere implying that
    $$
    text{Area of sphere} le sum_{j=1}^n A_j = pi sum_{j=1}^n d_j < pi.
    $$

    However, the surface area of the sphere is $4 pi (frac12)^2 = pi$ and we conclude $pi < pi$, reaching a contradiction.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted
      +50










      Turning the above comment into an answer.



      Consider a sphere of diameter $1$ in $mathbb{R}^3$ and identify the original circle of diameter $1$ with the intersection of the sphere with a plane that divides it precisely in half.



      We prove by contradiction that it is impossible that $n$ rectangles of width $d_1, ldots, d_n$ and $sum_{j=1}^n d_j < 1$ cover the circle. Indeed, suppose that the rectangles cover the original circle. For each rectangle, consider its projection on the sphere. Since the sphere has radius $frac12$, the projection is a ring of area
      $$
      A_j = 2pi d_j cdot frac12 = pi d_j,
      $$

      where $d_j$ is the width of the rectangle. Since the rectangles cover the circle, we conclude that the rings must cover the sphere implying that
      $$
      text{Area of sphere} le sum_{j=1}^n A_j = pi sum_{j=1}^n d_j < pi.
      $$

      However, the surface area of the sphere is $4 pi (frac12)^2 = pi$ and we conclude $pi < pi$, reaching a contradiction.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted
        +50







        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted
        +50




        +50




        Turning the above comment into an answer.



        Consider a sphere of diameter $1$ in $mathbb{R}^3$ and identify the original circle of diameter $1$ with the intersection of the sphere with a plane that divides it precisely in half.



        We prove by contradiction that it is impossible that $n$ rectangles of width $d_1, ldots, d_n$ and $sum_{j=1}^n d_j < 1$ cover the circle. Indeed, suppose that the rectangles cover the original circle. For each rectangle, consider its projection on the sphere. Since the sphere has radius $frac12$, the projection is a ring of area
        $$
        A_j = 2pi d_j cdot frac12 = pi d_j,
        $$

        where $d_j$ is the width of the rectangle. Since the rectangles cover the circle, we conclude that the rings must cover the sphere implying that
        $$
        text{Area of sphere} le sum_{j=1}^n A_j = pi sum_{j=1}^n d_j < pi.
        $$

        However, the surface area of the sphere is $4 pi (frac12)^2 = pi$ and we conclude $pi < pi$, reaching a contradiction.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Turning the above comment into an answer.



        Consider a sphere of diameter $1$ in $mathbb{R}^3$ and identify the original circle of diameter $1$ with the intersection of the sphere with a plane that divides it precisely in half.



        We prove by contradiction that it is impossible that $n$ rectangles of width $d_1, ldots, d_n$ and $sum_{j=1}^n d_j < 1$ cover the circle. Indeed, suppose that the rectangles cover the original circle. For each rectangle, consider its projection on the sphere. Since the sphere has radius $frac12$, the projection is a ring of area
        $$
        A_j = 2pi d_j cdot frac12 = pi d_j,
        $$

        where $d_j$ is the width of the rectangle. Since the rectangles cover the circle, we conclude that the rings must cover the sphere implying that
        $$
        text{Area of sphere} le sum_{j=1}^n A_j = pi sum_{j=1}^n d_j < pi.
        $$

        However, the surface area of the sphere is $4 pi (frac12)^2 = pi$ and we conclude $pi < pi$, reaching a contradiction.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 2 days ago









        Daniel

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        1,516210






























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