Proof of the product rule. Trick. Add and subtract the same term.
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While I was looking at the proof of the product rule, there was something that I don't quite understand.
Product Rule: $F'(x) = f'(x)g(x) + f(x)g'(x)$
The proof goes like,
$$begin{align}F'(x)&= lim_{hto 0}frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)}{h}end{align}$$
Here, we see $f(x+h)g(x)$ is being added and subtracted.
My question is, what does $f(x+h)g(x)$ mean?
And why does it have to be added and subtracted?
I tried to understand it with a little help from google and found it has to do with isolating $f(x+h)$ from $g(x+h)$ but i don't fully understand it.
I also came across what seems to be a useful pic to understand the rule
(pp 2 http://aleph0.clarku.edu/~djoyce/ma120/derivatives2.pdf)
but when it comes to adding and subtract $f(x+h)g(x)$, I don't see the point of doing it.
Why does it need to be added and subtracted?
calculus real-analysis
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
While I was looking at the proof of the product rule, there was something that I don't quite understand.
Product Rule: $F'(x) = f'(x)g(x) + f(x)g'(x)$
The proof goes like,
$$begin{align}F'(x)&= lim_{hto 0}frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)}{h}end{align}$$
Here, we see $f(x+h)g(x)$ is being added and subtracted.
My question is, what does $f(x+h)g(x)$ mean?
And why does it have to be added and subtracted?
I tried to understand it with a little help from google and found it has to do with isolating $f(x+h)$ from $g(x+h)$ but i don't fully understand it.
I also came across what seems to be a useful pic to understand the rule
(pp 2 http://aleph0.clarku.edu/~djoyce/ma120/derivatives2.pdf)
but when it comes to adding and subtract $f(x+h)g(x)$, I don't see the point of doing it.
Why does it need to be added and subtracted?
calculus real-analysis
2
Well, the down-to-Earth and practical reason why it needs to be added is that that's how the proof works very nicely. Perhaps there's other way to prove the claim, but with that trick things go really smooth.
– DonAntonio
Jul 22 '13 at 20:11
think of it like "force and adjust", you want to use the derivative definition, so they are added and subtracted so they don't change the overall value of the expression and allow us to link in the derivatives of the functions.
– WhizKid
Jul 22 '13 at 20:14
@DonAntonio yea, I found adding and subtracting work out pretty neatly in the end, but my question is how should i interprete adding and subtracting of f(x+h)g(x).
– Belphegor
Jul 22 '13 at 20:16
2
Adding $0$ in a fancy way is a common trick that many mathematicians use. For example, recall how we complete the square: $$ x^2 + 6x = x^2 + 6x color{red}{+ 9 - 9} = (x + 3)^2-9 $$
– Adriano
Jul 22 '13 at 20:18
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
While I was looking at the proof of the product rule, there was something that I don't quite understand.
Product Rule: $F'(x) = f'(x)g(x) + f(x)g'(x)$
The proof goes like,
$$begin{align}F'(x)&= lim_{hto 0}frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)}{h}end{align}$$
Here, we see $f(x+h)g(x)$ is being added and subtracted.
My question is, what does $f(x+h)g(x)$ mean?
And why does it have to be added and subtracted?
I tried to understand it with a little help from google and found it has to do with isolating $f(x+h)$ from $g(x+h)$ but i don't fully understand it.
I also came across what seems to be a useful pic to understand the rule
(pp 2 http://aleph0.clarku.edu/~djoyce/ma120/derivatives2.pdf)
but when it comes to adding and subtract $f(x+h)g(x)$, I don't see the point of doing it.
Why does it need to be added and subtracted?
calculus real-analysis
While I was looking at the proof of the product rule, there was something that I don't quite understand.
Product Rule: $F'(x) = f'(x)g(x) + f(x)g'(x)$
The proof goes like,
$$begin{align}F'(x)&= lim_{hto 0}frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)}{h}end{align}$$
Here, we see $f(x+h)g(x)$ is being added and subtracted.
My question is, what does $f(x+h)g(x)$ mean?
And why does it have to be added and subtracted?
I tried to understand it with a little help from google and found it has to do with isolating $f(x+h)$ from $g(x+h)$ but i don't fully understand it.
I also came across what seems to be a useful pic to understand the rule
(pp 2 http://aleph0.clarku.edu/~djoyce/ma120/derivatives2.pdf)
but when it comes to adding and subtract $f(x+h)g(x)$, I don't see the point of doing it.
Why does it need to be added and subtracted?
calculus real-analysis
calculus real-analysis
edited Feb 26 '14 at 8:15
Tucker Rapu
5971837
5971837
asked Jul 22 '13 at 20:07
Belphegor
1701210
1701210
2
Well, the down-to-Earth and practical reason why it needs to be added is that that's how the proof works very nicely. Perhaps there's other way to prove the claim, but with that trick things go really smooth.
– DonAntonio
Jul 22 '13 at 20:11
think of it like "force and adjust", you want to use the derivative definition, so they are added and subtracted so they don't change the overall value of the expression and allow us to link in the derivatives of the functions.
– WhizKid
Jul 22 '13 at 20:14
@DonAntonio yea, I found adding and subtracting work out pretty neatly in the end, but my question is how should i interprete adding and subtracting of f(x+h)g(x).
– Belphegor
Jul 22 '13 at 20:16
2
Adding $0$ in a fancy way is a common trick that many mathematicians use. For example, recall how we complete the square: $$ x^2 + 6x = x^2 + 6x color{red}{+ 9 - 9} = (x + 3)^2-9 $$
– Adriano
Jul 22 '13 at 20:18
add a comment |
2
Well, the down-to-Earth and practical reason why it needs to be added is that that's how the proof works very nicely. Perhaps there's other way to prove the claim, but with that trick things go really smooth.
– DonAntonio
Jul 22 '13 at 20:11
think of it like "force and adjust", you want to use the derivative definition, so they are added and subtracted so they don't change the overall value of the expression and allow us to link in the derivatives of the functions.
– WhizKid
Jul 22 '13 at 20:14
@DonAntonio yea, I found adding and subtracting work out pretty neatly in the end, but my question is how should i interprete adding and subtracting of f(x+h)g(x).
– Belphegor
Jul 22 '13 at 20:16
2
Adding $0$ in a fancy way is a common trick that many mathematicians use. For example, recall how we complete the square: $$ x^2 + 6x = x^2 + 6x color{red}{+ 9 - 9} = (x + 3)^2-9 $$
– Adriano
Jul 22 '13 at 20:18
2
2
Well, the down-to-Earth and practical reason why it needs to be added is that that's how the proof works very nicely. Perhaps there's other way to prove the claim, but with that trick things go really smooth.
– DonAntonio
Jul 22 '13 at 20:11
Well, the down-to-Earth and practical reason why it needs to be added is that that's how the proof works very nicely. Perhaps there's other way to prove the claim, but with that trick things go really smooth.
– DonAntonio
Jul 22 '13 at 20:11
think of it like "force and adjust", you want to use the derivative definition, so they are added and subtracted so they don't change the overall value of the expression and allow us to link in the derivatives of the functions.
– WhizKid
Jul 22 '13 at 20:14
think of it like "force and adjust", you want to use the derivative definition, so they are added and subtracted so they don't change the overall value of the expression and allow us to link in the derivatives of the functions.
– WhizKid
Jul 22 '13 at 20:14
@DonAntonio yea, I found adding and subtracting work out pretty neatly in the end, but my question is how should i interprete adding and subtracting of f(x+h)g(x).
– Belphegor
Jul 22 '13 at 20:16
@DonAntonio yea, I found adding and subtracting work out pretty neatly in the end, but my question is how should i interprete adding and subtracting of f(x+h)g(x).
– Belphegor
Jul 22 '13 at 20:16
2
2
Adding $0$ in a fancy way is a common trick that many mathematicians use. For example, recall how we complete the square: $$ x^2 + 6x = x^2 + 6x color{red}{+ 9 - 9} = (x + 3)^2-9 $$
– Adriano
Jul 22 '13 at 20:18
Adding $0$ in a fancy way is a common trick that many mathematicians use. For example, recall how we complete the square: $$ x^2 + 6x = x^2 + 6x color{red}{+ 9 - 9} = (x + 3)^2-9 $$
– Adriano
Jul 22 '13 at 20:18
add a comment |
5 Answers
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This is the usual proof of this theorem, but I find it works just as well in reverse.
Start with $f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x)$ and see what you get:
begin{align}
f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x)
&=lim_{hto 0} f'(x)g(x)+f(x+h)g'(x)\
&= lim_{hto 0} left( g(x)frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h} + f(x+h)frac{g(x+h)-g(x)}{h}right)\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}\
end{align}
Here, we see that $f(x+h)g(x)$ is something that is cancelled as we routinely simplify the expression. On the other hand, there is a leap of intuition where, rather than adding and subtracting, we rewrite the initial expression as $displaystyle lim_{hto 0} f'(x)g(x)+f(x+h)g'(x)$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The question "what does $f(x+h)g(x)$ mean" is easy to answer: It means the product of the numbers $f(x+h)$ and $g(x)$.
Now why are they added and subtracted? We can split that into two parts: Why is it added? And why is it then subtracted again?
The second part is easy to explain: We want an equality, so if we add something (other than $0$), we obviously have to subtract it again, or we'd not arrive at the same value as before.
But then, why are we adding it in the first place?
Well, we want to express the derivative of $f(x)g(x)$ by the derivatives of $f(x)$ and $g(x)$. Now the derivative of $f(x)$ is the limit of $(f(x+h)-f(x))/h$ and likewise for $g$. But we don't see those terms in the expression. However, we already see parts of those expressions. Let's transform the expression slightly top more clearly see that:
$$frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}=frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)}{h} = frac{f(x+h)}{h}g(x+h) - f(x)frac{g(x)}{h}$$
As you can see, there's the expression $f(x+h)/h$ which looks almost like the expression we have to take the limit of to get $f'(x)$, but there's something missing: The $-f(x)$ part. Well, if it is missing, let's just add it:
$$frac{f(x+h)color{red}{-f(x)}}{h}g(x+h)-f(x)frac{g(x)}{h}$$
Now we have a nice difference quotient on the left side. But we changed the expression! Our expression is no longer the same we started with, and certainly doesn't equal $(F(x+h)-F(x))/h$. How to fix it? Well, simply add again what we just subtracted:
$$frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}=frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}g(x+h) color{red}{+ frac{f(x)}{h}g(x+h)} -f(x)frac{g(x)}{h}$$
Now we are back at the original value, but still have the nice quotient. Moreover, we see that on the last two terms, we can move $f(x)$ out, to get
$$frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}=frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}g(x+h) + f(x)frac{g(x+h)-g(x)}{h}$$
Now, that's even better! Now we also have the quotient in the right form for $g$! All we now have to do is to take the limit for $hto 0$, and find
$$F'(x)=f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x)$$
add a comment |
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1
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If you want a proof that follows the picture more closely, you could start with begin{equation}
f(x+h)g(x+h) = f(x)g(x) + (f(x+h)-f(x))g(x) + (g(x+h)-g(x))f(x) + (f(x+h)-f(x))(g(x+h)-g(x)).
end{equation}
Now bring $f(x)g(x)$ to the other side, divide by $h$, and take the limit as $hto 0$.
add a comment |
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0
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The point of adding and subtracting $f(x+h)g(x)$ is to get two terms that we can use the distributive law with. We have $$f(x+h)g(x+h)=f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)\
=f(x+h)[g(x+h)-g(x)]+g(x)[f(x+h)-f(x)]$$
The two terms in square brackets are ones in the definition of $g'(x)$ and $f'(x)$. In your figure, the first term in the last line is Area B and the second term in the last line is Area A. We then argue that Area C is small enough we can ignore it as it has a factor of $h$ in each dimension.
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0
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I'm assuming you have the rest of the proof in front of you, but the point of adding and subtracting is so that you only have one $+h$ difference to deal with, rather than two. The reason why we only want one $+h$ is because it becomes simply the definition of the derivative for one function, rather than two.
For example, the first two terms of the numerator only has the $+h$ difference in $g$: $$f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)=f(x+h)[g(x+h)-g(x)]$$
and the $g(x+h)-g(x)$ on the right side looks very familiar: it's part of the definition of the derivative of $g$.
In terms of the picture, the goal is to find another way to express the sum of the areas of $A$, $B$, and $C$. You could express it as the area of the whole rectangle minus the largest rectangle (i.e., $f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)$),
or you could express it as the area of $B$ and $C$ (i.e., $f(x+h)g(x+h) - f(x+h)g(x)$) added with the area of $A$ (i.e., $f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)$). The reason for doing this, though, is what I stated above: to make the proof work and to get the desired result.
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protected by T. Bongers Dec 1 at 0:28
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5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
5
down vote
This is the usual proof of this theorem, but I find it works just as well in reverse.
Start with $f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x)$ and see what you get:
begin{align}
f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x)
&=lim_{hto 0} f'(x)g(x)+f(x+h)g'(x)\
&= lim_{hto 0} left( g(x)frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h} + f(x+h)frac{g(x+h)-g(x)}{h}right)\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}\
end{align}
Here, we see that $f(x+h)g(x)$ is something that is cancelled as we routinely simplify the expression. On the other hand, there is a leap of intuition where, rather than adding and subtracting, we rewrite the initial expression as $displaystyle lim_{hto 0} f'(x)g(x)+f(x+h)g'(x)$.
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
This is the usual proof of this theorem, but I find it works just as well in reverse.
Start with $f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x)$ and see what you get:
begin{align}
f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x)
&=lim_{hto 0} f'(x)g(x)+f(x+h)g'(x)\
&= lim_{hto 0} left( g(x)frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h} + f(x+h)frac{g(x+h)-g(x)}{h}right)\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}\
end{align}
Here, we see that $f(x+h)g(x)$ is something that is cancelled as we routinely simplify the expression. On the other hand, there is a leap of intuition where, rather than adding and subtracting, we rewrite the initial expression as $displaystyle lim_{hto 0} f'(x)g(x)+f(x+h)g'(x)$.
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
up vote
5
down vote
This is the usual proof of this theorem, but I find it works just as well in reverse.
Start with $f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x)$ and see what you get:
begin{align}
f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x)
&=lim_{hto 0} f'(x)g(x)+f(x+h)g'(x)\
&= lim_{hto 0} left( g(x)frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h} + f(x+h)frac{g(x+h)-g(x)}{h}right)\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}\
end{align}
Here, we see that $f(x+h)g(x)$ is something that is cancelled as we routinely simplify the expression. On the other hand, there is a leap of intuition where, rather than adding and subtracting, we rewrite the initial expression as $displaystyle lim_{hto 0} f'(x)g(x)+f(x+h)g'(x)$.
This is the usual proof of this theorem, but I find it works just as well in reverse.
Start with $f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x)$ and see what you get:
begin{align}
f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x)
&=lim_{hto 0} f'(x)g(x)+f(x+h)g'(x)\
&= lim_{hto 0} left( g(x)frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h} + f(x+h)frac{g(x+h)-g(x)}{h}right)\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)}{h}\
&= lim_{hto 0}frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}\
end{align}
Here, we see that $f(x+h)g(x)$ is something that is cancelled as we routinely simplify the expression. On the other hand, there is a leap of intuition where, rather than adding and subtracting, we rewrite the initial expression as $displaystyle lim_{hto 0} f'(x)g(x)+f(x+h)g'(x)$.
answered Jul 22 '13 at 20:31
Omnomnomnom
125k788176
125k788176
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The question "what does $f(x+h)g(x)$ mean" is easy to answer: It means the product of the numbers $f(x+h)$ and $g(x)$.
Now why are they added and subtracted? We can split that into two parts: Why is it added? And why is it then subtracted again?
The second part is easy to explain: We want an equality, so if we add something (other than $0$), we obviously have to subtract it again, or we'd not arrive at the same value as before.
But then, why are we adding it in the first place?
Well, we want to express the derivative of $f(x)g(x)$ by the derivatives of $f(x)$ and $g(x)$. Now the derivative of $f(x)$ is the limit of $(f(x+h)-f(x))/h$ and likewise for $g$. But we don't see those terms in the expression. However, we already see parts of those expressions. Let's transform the expression slightly top more clearly see that:
$$frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}=frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)}{h} = frac{f(x+h)}{h}g(x+h) - f(x)frac{g(x)}{h}$$
As you can see, there's the expression $f(x+h)/h$ which looks almost like the expression we have to take the limit of to get $f'(x)$, but there's something missing: The $-f(x)$ part. Well, if it is missing, let's just add it:
$$frac{f(x+h)color{red}{-f(x)}}{h}g(x+h)-f(x)frac{g(x)}{h}$$
Now we have a nice difference quotient on the left side. But we changed the expression! Our expression is no longer the same we started with, and certainly doesn't equal $(F(x+h)-F(x))/h$. How to fix it? Well, simply add again what we just subtracted:
$$frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}=frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}g(x+h) color{red}{+ frac{f(x)}{h}g(x+h)} -f(x)frac{g(x)}{h}$$
Now we are back at the original value, but still have the nice quotient. Moreover, we see that on the last two terms, we can move $f(x)$ out, to get
$$frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}=frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}g(x+h) + f(x)frac{g(x+h)-g(x)}{h}$$
Now, that's even better! Now we also have the quotient in the right form for $g$! All we now have to do is to take the limit for $hto 0$, and find
$$F'(x)=f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x)$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The question "what does $f(x+h)g(x)$ mean" is easy to answer: It means the product of the numbers $f(x+h)$ and $g(x)$.
Now why are they added and subtracted? We can split that into two parts: Why is it added? And why is it then subtracted again?
The second part is easy to explain: We want an equality, so if we add something (other than $0$), we obviously have to subtract it again, or we'd not arrive at the same value as before.
But then, why are we adding it in the first place?
Well, we want to express the derivative of $f(x)g(x)$ by the derivatives of $f(x)$ and $g(x)$. Now the derivative of $f(x)$ is the limit of $(f(x+h)-f(x))/h$ and likewise for $g$. But we don't see those terms in the expression. However, we already see parts of those expressions. Let's transform the expression slightly top more clearly see that:
$$frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}=frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)}{h} = frac{f(x+h)}{h}g(x+h) - f(x)frac{g(x)}{h}$$
As you can see, there's the expression $f(x+h)/h$ which looks almost like the expression we have to take the limit of to get $f'(x)$, but there's something missing: The $-f(x)$ part. Well, if it is missing, let's just add it:
$$frac{f(x+h)color{red}{-f(x)}}{h}g(x+h)-f(x)frac{g(x)}{h}$$
Now we have a nice difference quotient on the left side. But we changed the expression! Our expression is no longer the same we started with, and certainly doesn't equal $(F(x+h)-F(x))/h$. How to fix it? Well, simply add again what we just subtracted:
$$frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}=frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}g(x+h) color{red}{+ frac{f(x)}{h}g(x+h)} -f(x)frac{g(x)}{h}$$
Now we are back at the original value, but still have the nice quotient. Moreover, we see that on the last two terms, we can move $f(x)$ out, to get
$$frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}=frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}g(x+h) + f(x)frac{g(x+h)-g(x)}{h}$$
Now, that's even better! Now we also have the quotient in the right form for $g$! All we now have to do is to take the limit for $hto 0$, and find
$$F'(x)=f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x)$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
The question "what does $f(x+h)g(x)$ mean" is easy to answer: It means the product of the numbers $f(x+h)$ and $g(x)$.
Now why are they added and subtracted? We can split that into two parts: Why is it added? And why is it then subtracted again?
The second part is easy to explain: We want an equality, so if we add something (other than $0$), we obviously have to subtract it again, or we'd not arrive at the same value as before.
But then, why are we adding it in the first place?
Well, we want to express the derivative of $f(x)g(x)$ by the derivatives of $f(x)$ and $g(x)$. Now the derivative of $f(x)$ is the limit of $(f(x+h)-f(x))/h$ and likewise for $g$. But we don't see those terms in the expression. However, we already see parts of those expressions. Let's transform the expression slightly top more clearly see that:
$$frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}=frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)}{h} = frac{f(x+h)}{h}g(x+h) - f(x)frac{g(x)}{h}$$
As you can see, there's the expression $f(x+h)/h$ which looks almost like the expression we have to take the limit of to get $f'(x)$, but there's something missing: The $-f(x)$ part. Well, if it is missing, let's just add it:
$$frac{f(x+h)color{red}{-f(x)}}{h}g(x+h)-f(x)frac{g(x)}{h}$$
Now we have a nice difference quotient on the left side. But we changed the expression! Our expression is no longer the same we started with, and certainly doesn't equal $(F(x+h)-F(x))/h$. How to fix it? Well, simply add again what we just subtracted:
$$frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}=frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}g(x+h) color{red}{+ frac{f(x)}{h}g(x+h)} -f(x)frac{g(x)}{h}$$
Now we are back at the original value, but still have the nice quotient. Moreover, we see that on the last two terms, we can move $f(x)$ out, to get
$$frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}=frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}g(x+h) + f(x)frac{g(x+h)-g(x)}{h}$$
Now, that's even better! Now we also have the quotient in the right form for $g$! All we now have to do is to take the limit for $hto 0$, and find
$$F'(x)=f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x)$$
The question "what does $f(x+h)g(x)$ mean" is easy to answer: It means the product of the numbers $f(x+h)$ and $g(x)$.
Now why are they added and subtracted? We can split that into two parts: Why is it added? And why is it then subtracted again?
The second part is easy to explain: We want an equality, so if we add something (other than $0$), we obviously have to subtract it again, or we'd not arrive at the same value as before.
But then, why are we adding it in the first place?
Well, we want to express the derivative of $f(x)g(x)$ by the derivatives of $f(x)$ and $g(x)$. Now the derivative of $f(x)$ is the limit of $(f(x+h)-f(x))/h$ and likewise for $g$. But we don't see those terms in the expression. However, we already see parts of those expressions. Let's transform the expression slightly top more clearly see that:
$$frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}=frac{f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)}{h} = frac{f(x+h)}{h}g(x+h) - f(x)frac{g(x)}{h}$$
As you can see, there's the expression $f(x+h)/h$ which looks almost like the expression we have to take the limit of to get $f'(x)$, but there's something missing: The $-f(x)$ part. Well, if it is missing, let's just add it:
$$frac{f(x+h)color{red}{-f(x)}}{h}g(x+h)-f(x)frac{g(x)}{h}$$
Now we have a nice difference quotient on the left side. But we changed the expression! Our expression is no longer the same we started with, and certainly doesn't equal $(F(x+h)-F(x))/h$. How to fix it? Well, simply add again what we just subtracted:
$$frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}=frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}g(x+h) color{red}{+ frac{f(x)}{h}g(x+h)} -f(x)frac{g(x)}{h}$$
Now we are back at the original value, but still have the nice quotient. Moreover, we see that on the last two terms, we can move $f(x)$ out, to get
$$frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}=frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}g(x+h) + f(x)frac{g(x+h)-g(x)}{h}$$
Now, that's even better! Now we also have the quotient in the right form for $g$! All we now have to do is to take the limit for $hto 0$, and find
$$F'(x)=f'(x)g(x)+f(x)g'(x)$$
edited Feb 26 '14 at 8:06
Tucker Rapu
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answered Jul 22 '13 at 20:37
celtschk
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If you want a proof that follows the picture more closely, you could start with begin{equation}
f(x+h)g(x+h) = f(x)g(x) + (f(x+h)-f(x))g(x) + (g(x+h)-g(x))f(x) + (f(x+h)-f(x))(g(x+h)-g(x)).
end{equation}
Now bring $f(x)g(x)$ to the other side, divide by $h$, and take the limit as $hto 0$.
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If you want a proof that follows the picture more closely, you could start with begin{equation}
f(x+h)g(x+h) = f(x)g(x) + (f(x+h)-f(x))g(x) + (g(x+h)-g(x))f(x) + (f(x+h)-f(x))(g(x+h)-g(x)).
end{equation}
Now bring $f(x)g(x)$ to the other side, divide by $h$, and take the limit as $hto 0$.
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If you want a proof that follows the picture more closely, you could start with begin{equation}
f(x+h)g(x+h) = f(x)g(x) + (f(x+h)-f(x))g(x) + (g(x+h)-g(x))f(x) + (f(x+h)-f(x))(g(x+h)-g(x)).
end{equation}
Now bring $f(x)g(x)$ to the other side, divide by $h$, and take the limit as $hto 0$.
If you want a proof that follows the picture more closely, you could start with begin{equation}
f(x+h)g(x+h) = f(x)g(x) + (f(x+h)-f(x))g(x) + (g(x+h)-g(x))f(x) + (f(x+h)-f(x))(g(x+h)-g(x)).
end{equation}
Now bring $f(x)g(x)$ to the other side, divide by $h$, and take the limit as $hto 0$.
answered Feb 26 '14 at 8:26
littleO
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The point of adding and subtracting $f(x+h)g(x)$ is to get two terms that we can use the distributive law with. We have $$f(x+h)g(x+h)=f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)\
=f(x+h)[g(x+h)-g(x)]+g(x)[f(x+h)-f(x)]$$
The two terms in square brackets are ones in the definition of $g'(x)$ and $f'(x)$. In your figure, the first term in the last line is Area B and the second term in the last line is Area A. We then argue that Area C is small enough we can ignore it as it has a factor of $h$ in each dimension.
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The point of adding and subtracting $f(x+h)g(x)$ is to get two terms that we can use the distributive law with. We have $$f(x+h)g(x+h)=f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)\
=f(x+h)[g(x+h)-g(x)]+g(x)[f(x+h)-f(x)]$$
The two terms in square brackets are ones in the definition of $g'(x)$ and $f'(x)$. In your figure, the first term in the last line is Area B and the second term in the last line is Area A. We then argue that Area C is small enough we can ignore it as it has a factor of $h$ in each dimension.
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The point of adding and subtracting $f(x+h)g(x)$ is to get two terms that we can use the distributive law with. We have $$f(x+h)g(x+h)=f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)\
=f(x+h)[g(x+h)-g(x)]+g(x)[f(x+h)-f(x)]$$
The two terms in square brackets are ones in the definition of $g'(x)$ and $f'(x)$. In your figure, the first term in the last line is Area B and the second term in the last line is Area A. We then argue that Area C is small enough we can ignore it as it has a factor of $h$ in each dimension.
The point of adding and subtracting $f(x+h)g(x)$ is to get two terms that we can use the distributive law with. We have $$f(x+h)g(x+h)=f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)\
=f(x+h)[g(x+h)-g(x)]+g(x)[f(x+h)-f(x)]$$
The two terms in square brackets are ones in the definition of $g'(x)$ and $f'(x)$. In your figure, the first term in the last line is Area B and the second term in the last line is Area A. We then argue that Area C is small enough we can ignore it as it has a factor of $h$ in each dimension.
answered Jul 22 '13 at 20:18
Ross Millikan
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I'm assuming you have the rest of the proof in front of you, but the point of adding and subtracting is so that you only have one $+h$ difference to deal with, rather than two. The reason why we only want one $+h$ is because it becomes simply the definition of the derivative for one function, rather than two.
For example, the first two terms of the numerator only has the $+h$ difference in $g$: $$f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)=f(x+h)[g(x+h)-g(x)]$$
and the $g(x+h)-g(x)$ on the right side looks very familiar: it's part of the definition of the derivative of $g$.
In terms of the picture, the goal is to find another way to express the sum of the areas of $A$, $B$, and $C$. You could express it as the area of the whole rectangle minus the largest rectangle (i.e., $f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)$),
or you could express it as the area of $B$ and $C$ (i.e., $f(x+h)g(x+h) - f(x+h)g(x)$) added with the area of $A$ (i.e., $f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)$). The reason for doing this, though, is what I stated above: to make the proof work and to get the desired result.
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I'm assuming you have the rest of the proof in front of you, but the point of adding and subtracting is so that you only have one $+h$ difference to deal with, rather than two. The reason why we only want one $+h$ is because it becomes simply the definition of the derivative for one function, rather than two.
For example, the first two terms of the numerator only has the $+h$ difference in $g$: $$f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)=f(x+h)[g(x+h)-g(x)]$$
and the $g(x+h)-g(x)$ on the right side looks very familiar: it's part of the definition of the derivative of $g$.
In terms of the picture, the goal is to find another way to express the sum of the areas of $A$, $B$, and $C$. You could express it as the area of the whole rectangle minus the largest rectangle (i.e., $f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)$),
or you could express it as the area of $B$ and $C$ (i.e., $f(x+h)g(x+h) - f(x+h)g(x)$) added with the area of $A$ (i.e., $f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)$). The reason for doing this, though, is what I stated above: to make the proof work and to get the desired result.
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I'm assuming you have the rest of the proof in front of you, but the point of adding and subtracting is so that you only have one $+h$ difference to deal with, rather than two. The reason why we only want one $+h$ is because it becomes simply the definition of the derivative for one function, rather than two.
For example, the first two terms of the numerator only has the $+h$ difference in $g$: $$f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)=f(x+h)[g(x+h)-g(x)]$$
and the $g(x+h)-g(x)$ on the right side looks very familiar: it's part of the definition of the derivative of $g$.
In terms of the picture, the goal is to find another way to express the sum of the areas of $A$, $B$, and $C$. You could express it as the area of the whole rectangle minus the largest rectangle (i.e., $f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)$),
or you could express it as the area of $B$ and $C$ (i.e., $f(x+h)g(x+h) - f(x+h)g(x)$) added with the area of $A$ (i.e., $f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)$). The reason for doing this, though, is what I stated above: to make the proof work and to get the desired result.
I'm assuming you have the rest of the proof in front of you, but the point of adding and subtracting is so that you only have one $+h$ difference to deal with, rather than two. The reason why we only want one $+h$ is because it becomes simply the definition of the derivative for one function, rather than two.
For example, the first two terms of the numerator only has the $+h$ difference in $g$: $$f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)=f(x+h)[g(x+h)-g(x)]$$
and the $g(x+h)-g(x)$ on the right side looks very familiar: it's part of the definition of the derivative of $g$.
In terms of the picture, the goal is to find another way to express the sum of the areas of $A$, $B$, and $C$. You could express it as the area of the whole rectangle minus the largest rectangle (i.e., $f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)$),
or you could express it as the area of $B$ and $C$ (i.e., $f(x+h)g(x+h) - f(x+h)g(x)$) added with the area of $A$ (i.e., $f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)$). The reason for doing this, though, is what I stated above: to make the proof work and to get the desired result.
answered Jul 22 '13 at 20:23
angryavian
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Well, the down-to-Earth and practical reason why it needs to be added is that that's how the proof works very nicely. Perhaps there's other way to prove the claim, but with that trick things go really smooth.
– DonAntonio
Jul 22 '13 at 20:11
think of it like "force and adjust", you want to use the derivative definition, so they are added and subtracted so they don't change the overall value of the expression and allow us to link in the derivatives of the functions.
– WhizKid
Jul 22 '13 at 20:14
@DonAntonio yea, I found adding and subtracting work out pretty neatly in the end, but my question is how should i interprete adding and subtracting of f(x+h)g(x).
– Belphegor
Jul 22 '13 at 20:16
2
Adding $0$ in a fancy way is a common trick that many mathematicians use. For example, recall how we complete the square: $$ x^2 + 6x = x^2 + 6x color{red}{+ 9 - 9} = (x + 3)^2-9 $$
– Adriano
Jul 22 '13 at 20:18