Is there a function $f(x)$ such that $lim_{xrightarrow x_0}f(x)=infty$ for all $x_0$ in some interval? [on...











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Let $f(x)$ be a real valued function with its domain in $mathbb{R}$. Is there an example of $f(x)$ such that
$$lim_{xrightarrow x_0}f(x)=infty$$
for all $x_0$ in some interval?










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put on hold as off-topic by user10354138, Brahadeesh, user302797, Kavi Rama Murthy, Chinnapparaj R yesterday


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – user10354138, Brahadeesh, user302797, Kavi Rama Murthy, Chinnapparaj R

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









  • 4




    No.in orden to make sense The Notion of LIMIT, The point must be accessible, that is, it must be an acumulation point.
    – Tito Eliatron
    yesterday






  • 1




    @TitoEliatron could you add a formal proof of this? I'm not terribly experienced in RA, but it seems feasible that a sufficiently "hilly" function will have the desired behavior.
    – DreamConspiracy
    yesterday






  • 2




    @TitoEliatron What are you talking about? If $x_0in[a,b]$ then $x_0$ is an accumulation point of $[a,b]$.
    – David C. Ullrich
    yesterday










  • Ok. I see my misunderstanding. Sorry. I was think it on some regular function.
    – Tito Eliatron
    yesterday












  • Relaten to this question, is there a function such that for any $x_0in [a,b]$ there is a subsequence $(x_k^0)$ such that $x_k^0to x_0$ and $f(x_k^0)to x_0$?
    – Tito Eliatron
    yesterday















up vote
6
down vote

favorite
2












Let $f(x)$ be a real valued function with its domain in $mathbb{R}$. Is there an example of $f(x)$ such that
$$lim_{xrightarrow x_0}f(x)=infty$$
for all $x_0$ in some interval?










share|cite|improve this question













put on hold as off-topic by user10354138, Brahadeesh, user302797, Kavi Rama Murthy, Chinnapparaj R yesterday


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – user10354138, Brahadeesh, user302797, Kavi Rama Murthy, Chinnapparaj R

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









  • 4




    No.in orden to make sense The Notion of LIMIT, The point must be accessible, that is, it must be an acumulation point.
    – Tito Eliatron
    yesterday






  • 1




    @TitoEliatron could you add a formal proof of this? I'm not terribly experienced in RA, but it seems feasible that a sufficiently "hilly" function will have the desired behavior.
    – DreamConspiracy
    yesterday






  • 2




    @TitoEliatron What are you talking about? If $x_0in[a,b]$ then $x_0$ is an accumulation point of $[a,b]$.
    – David C. Ullrich
    yesterday










  • Ok. I see my misunderstanding. Sorry. I was think it on some regular function.
    – Tito Eliatron
    yesterday












  • Relaten to this question, is there a function such that for any $x_0in [a,b]$ there is a subsequence $(x_k^0)$ such that $x_k^0to x_0$ and $f(x_k^0)to x_0$?
    – Tito Eliatron
    yesterday













up vote
6
down vote

favorite
2









up vote
6
down vote

favorite
2






2





Let $f(x)$ be a real valued function with its domain in $mathbb{R}$. Is there an example of $f(x)$ such that
$$lim_{xrightarrow x_0}f(x)=infty$$
for all $x_0$ in some interval?










share|cite|improve this question













Let $f(x)$ be a real valued function with its domain in $mathbb{R}$. Is there an example of $f(x)$ such that
$$lim_{xrightarrow x_0}f(x)=infty$$
for all $x_0$ in some interval?







calculus real-analysis examples-counterexamples






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share|cite|improve this question











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share|cite|improve this question










asked yesterday









user300871

7315




7315




put on hold as off-topic by user10354138, Brahadeesh, user302797, Kavi Rama Murthy, Chinnapparaj R yesterday


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – user10354138, Brahadeesh, user302797, Kavi Rama Murthy, Chinnapparaj R

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




put on hold as off-topic by user10354138, Brahadeesh, user302797, Kavi Rama Murthy, Chinnapparaj R yesterday


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – user10354138, Brahadeesh, user302797, Kavi Rama Murthy, Chinnapparaj R

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 4




    No.in orden to make sense The Notion of LIMIT, The point must be accessible, that is, it must be an acumulation point.
    – Tito Eliatron
    yesterday






  • 1




    @TitoEliatron could you add a formal proof of this? I'm not terribly experienced in RA, but it seems feasible that a sufficiently "hilly" function will have the desired behavior.
    – DreamConspiracy
    yesterday






  • 2




    @TitoEliatron What are you talking about? If $x_0in[a,b]$ then $x_0$ is an accumulation point of $[a,b]$.
    – David C. Ullrich
    yesterday










  • Ok. I see my misunderstanding. Sorry. I was think it on some regular function.
    – Tito Eliatron
    yesterday












  • Relaten to this question, is there a function such that for any $x_0in [a,b]$ there is a subsequence $(x_k^0)$ such that $x_k^0to x_0$ and $f(x_k^0)to x_0$?
    – Tito Eliatron
    yesterday














  • 4




    No.in orden to make sense The Notion of LIMIT, The point must be accessible, that is, it must be an acumulation point.
    – Tito Eliatron
    yesterday






  • 1




    @TitoEliatron could you add a formal proof of this? I'm not terribly experienced in RA, but it seems feasible that a sufficiently "hilly" function will have the desired behavior.
    – DreamConspiracy
    yesterday






  • 2




    @TitoEliatron What are you talking about? If $x_0in[a,b]$ then $x_0$ is an accumulation point of $[a,b]$.
    – David C. Ullrich
    yesterday










  • Ok. I see my misunderstanding. Sorry. I was think it on some regular function.
    – Tito Eliatron
    yesterday












  • Relaten to this question, is there a function such that for any $x_0in [a,b]$ there is a subsequence $(x_k^0)$ such that $x_k^0to x_0$ and $f(x_k^0)to x_0$?
    – Tito Eliatron
    yesterday








4




4




No.in orden to make sense The Notion of LIMIT, The point must be accessible, that is, it must be an acumulation point.
– Tito Eliatron
yesterday




No.in orden to make sense The Notion of LIMIT, The point must be accessible, that is, it must be an acumulation point.
– Tito Eliatron
yesterday




1




1




@TitoEliatron could you add a formal proof of this? I'm not terribly experienced in RA, but it seems feasible that a sufficiently "hilly" function will have the desired behavior.
– DreamConspiracy
yesterday




@TitoEliatron could you add a formal proof of this? I'm not terribly experienced in RA, but it seems feasible that a sufficiently "hilly" function will have the desired behavior.
– DreamConspiracy
yesterday




2




2




@TitoEliatron What are you talking about? If $x_0in[a,b]$ then $x_0$ is an accumulation point of $[a,b]$.
– David C. Ullrich
yesterday




@TitoEliatron What are you talking about? If $x_0in[a,b]$ then $x_0$ is an accumulation point of $[a,b]$.
– David C. Ullrich
yesterday












Ok. I see my misunderstanding. Sorry. I was think it on some regular function.
– Tito Eliatron
yesterday






Ok. I see my misunderstanding. Sorry. I was think it on some regular function.
– Tito Eliatron
yesterday














Relaten to this question, is there a function such that for any $x_0in [a,b]$ there is a subsequence $(x_k^0)$ such that $x_k^0to x_0$ and $f(x_k^0)to x_0$?
– Tito Eliatron
yesterday




Relaten to this question, is there a function such that for any $x_0in [a,b]$ there is a subsequence $(x_k^0)$ such that $x_k^0to x_0$ and $f(x_k^0)to x_0$?
– Tito Eliatron
yesterday










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
10
down vote













Assuming that "domain in $Bbb R$" means $f:Bbb RtoBbb R$: No. Say $f:[a,b]toBbb R$. For $ninBbb Z$ let $$E_n={xin[a,b]:f(x)le n}.$$Then $$[a,b]=bigcup_{ninBbb Z} E_n.$$Since $[a,b]$ is uncountable this shows that there exists $n$ such that $E_n$ is infinite. So $E_n$ has an accumulation point $x_0in[a,b]$, and hence $f$ does not tend to infinty at $x_0$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • +1 very nice argument.
    – Paramanand Singh
    yesterday


















up vote
3
down vote













Short answer: Yes.



While David C. Ullrich has given what seems to be a good answer, there's a fatal flaw. It assumes that $f$ is defined everywhere in some interval. The question, however, only says that the domain is in $Bbb{R}$, and makes no other assertions.



The function:



In fact, there is a function $f$ which is defined on the rationals that has the property you want. In fact, it has the property that for all $x_0inBbb{R}$ it has $$lim_{xto x_0} f(x)= infty.$$



Define $f:Bbb{Q}to Bbb{R}$ by $f(p/q)=q$, where $p/q$ is the expression of the rational number in least terms.



Then for any $n$, the set of points at which $f$ has value less than or equal to $n$ is a subset of $bigcup_{k=1}^nfrac{1}{k}Bbb{Z}$, which is a finite union of discrete subsets of $Bbb{R}$, and hence itself a discrete subset of $Bbb{R}$.



Thus every point of $Bbb{R}$ has a punctured neighborhood disjoint from this set, and hence for every $ninBbb{N}$, and every $x_0inBbb{R}$ there exists $epsilon > 0$ such that for all $qin Bbb{Q}$ with $0<|x_0-q|<epsilon$ $f(q) > n$. However, this is exactly what it means for
$$lim_{xto x_0} f(x) = infty.$$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Wrong argument at $0<|x-x_0|<epsilon$. By definition, $lim_{xrightarrow x_0}f(x)=infty$ means $forall nin mathbb{N}, exists epsilon>0$ such that $f(x)>n$ for all $x$ satisfying $|x-x_0|<epsilon$ (not $0<|x-x_0|<epsilon$).
    – user300871
    16 hours ago








  • 2




    @user300871 That's incorrect. If we defined it that way, then the limit of the function $g(x)=1/x^2$ for $xne 0$ with $g(0)=0$ wouldn't have that the limit at 0 is $infty$. Limits of functions are usually defined by using punctured neighborhoods, so that the value of the function at the point doesn't influence the limit.
    – jgon
    16 hours ago










  • you're right, I'm wrong.
    – user300871
    15 hours ago


















2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
10
down vote













Assuming that "domain in $Bbb R$" means $f:Bbb RtoBbb R$: No. Say $f:[a,b]toBbb R$. For $ninBbb Z$ let $$E_n={xin[a,b]:f(x)le n}.$$Then $$[a,b]=bigcup_{ninBbb Z} E_n.$$Since $[a,b]$ is uncountable this shows that there exists $n$ such that $E_n$ is infinite. So $E_n$ has an accumulation point $x_0in[a,b]$, and hence $f$ does not tend to infinty at $x_0$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • +1 very nice argument.
    – Paramanand Singh
    yesterday















up vote
10
down vote













Assuming that "domain in $Bbb R$" means $f:Bbb RtoBbb R$: No. Say $f:[a,b]toBbb R$. For $ninBbb Z$ let $$E_n={xin[a,b]:f(x)le n}.$$Then $$[a,b]=bigcup_{ninBbb Z} E_n.$$Since $[a,b]$ is uncountable this shows that there exists $n$ such that $E_n$ is infinite. So $E_n$ has an accumulation point $x_0in[a,b]$, and hence $f$ does not tend to infinty at $x_0$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • +1 very nice argument.
    – Paramanand Singh
    yesterday













up vote
10
down vote










up vote
10
down vote









Assuming that "domain in $Bbb R$" means $f:Bbb RtoBbb R$: No. Say $f:[a,b]toBbb R$. For $ninBbb Z$ let $$E_n={xin[a,b]:f(x)le n}.$$Then $$[a,b]=bigcup_{ninBbb Z} E_n.$$Since $[a,b]$ is uncountable this shows that there exists $n$ such that $E_n$ is infinite. So $E_n$ has an accumulation point $x_0in[a,b]$, and hence $f$ does not tend to infinty at $x_0$.






share|cite|improve this answer














Assuming that "domain in $Bbb R$" means $f:Bbb RtoBbb R$: No. Say $f:[a,b]toBbb R$. For $ninBbb Z$ let $$E_n={xin[a,b]:f(x)le n}.$$Then $$[a,b]=bigcup_{ninBbb Z} E_n.$$Since $[a,b]$ is uncountable this shows that there exists $n$ such that $E_n$ is infinite. So $E_n$ has an accumulation point $x_0in[a,b]$, and hence $f$ does not tend to infinty at $x_0$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 16 hours ago

























answered yesterday









David C. Ullrich

57.3k43791




57.3k43791












  • +1 very nice argument.
    – Paramanand Singh
    yesterday


















  • +1 very nice argument.
    – Paramanand Singh
    yesterday
















+1 very nice argument.
– Paramanand Singh
yesterday




+1 very nice argument.
– Paramanand Singh
yesterday










up vote
3
down vote













Short answer: Yes.



While David C. Ullrich has given what seems to be a good answer, there's a fatal flaw. It assumes that $f$ is defined everywhere in some interval. The question, however, only says that the domain is in $Bbb{R}$, and makes no other assertions.



The function:



In fact, there is a function $f$ which is defined on the rationals that has the property you want. In fact, it has the property that for all $x_0inBbb{R}$ it has $$lim_{xto x_0} f(x)= infty.$$



Define $f:Bbb{Q}to Bbb{R}$ by $f(p/q)=q$, where $p/q$ is the expression of the rational number in least terms.



Then for any $n$, the set of points at which $f$ has value less than or equal to $n$ is a subset of $bigcup_{k=1}^nfrac{1}{k}Bbb{Z}$, which is a finite union of discrete subsets of $Bbb{R}$, and hence itself a discrete subset of $Bbb{R}$.



Thus every point of $Bbb{R}$ has a punctured neighborhood disjoint from this set, and hence for every $ninBbb{N}$, and every $x_0inBbb{R}$ there exists $epsilon > 0$ such that for all $qin Bbb{Q}$ with $0<|x_0-q|<epsilon$ $f(q) > n$. However, this is exactly what it means for
$$lim_{xto x_0} f(x) = infty.$$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Wrong argument at $0<|x-x_0|<epsilon$. By definition, $lim_{xrightarrow x_0}f(x)=infty$ means $forall nin mathbb{N}, exists epsilon>0$ such that $f(x)>n$ for all $x$ satisfying $|x-x_0|<epsilon$ (not $0<|x-x_0|<epsilon$).
    – user300871
    16 hours ago








  • 2




    @user300871 That's incorrect. If we defined it that way, then the limit of the function $g(x)=1/x^2$ for $xne 0$ with $g(0)=0$ wouldn't have that the limit at 0 is $infty$. Limits of functions are usually defined by using punctured neighborhoods, so that the value of the function at the point doesn't influence the limit.
    – jgon
    16 hours ago










  • you're right, I'm wrong.
    – user300871
    15 hours ago















up vote
3
down vote













Short answer: Yes.



While David C. Ullrich has given what seems to be a good answer, there's a fatal flaw. It assumes that $f$ is defined everywhere in some interval. The question, however, only says that the domain is in $Bbb{R}$, and makes no other assertions.



The function:



In fact, there is a function $f$ which is defined on the rationals that has the property you want. In fact, it has the property that for all $x_0inBbb{R}$ it has $$lim_{xto x_0} f(x)= infty.$$



Define $f:Bbb{Q}to Bbb{R}$ by $f(p/q)=q$, where $p/q$ is the expression of the rational number in least terms.



Then for any $n$, the set of points at which $f$ has value less than or equal to $n$ is a subset of $bigcup_{k=1}^nfrac{1}{k}Bbb{Z}$, which is a finite union of discrete subsets of $Bbb{R}$, and hence itself a discrete subset of $Bbb{R}$.



Thus every point of $Bbb{R}$ has a punctured neighborhood disjoint from this set, and hence for every $ninBbb{N}$, and every $x_0inBbb{R}$ there exists $epsilon > 0$ such that for all $qin Bbb{Q}$ with $0<|x_0-q|<epsilon$ $f(q) > n$. However, this is exactly what it means for
$$lim_{xto x_0} f(x) = infty.$$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Wrong argument at $0<|x-x_0|<epsilon$. By definition, $lim_{xrightarrow x_0}f(x)=infty$ means $forall nin mathbb{N}, exists epsilon>0$ such that $f(x)>n$ for all $x$ satisfying $|x-x_0|<epsilon$ (not $0<|x-x_0|<epsilon$).
    – user300871
    16 hours ago








  • 2




    @user300871 That's incorrect. If we defined it that way, then the limit of the function $g(x)=1/x^2$ for $xne 0$ with $g(0)=0$ wouldn't have that the limit at 0 is $infty$. Limits of functions are usually defined by using punctured neighborhoods, so that the value of the function at the point doesn't influence the limit.
    – jgon
    16 hours ago










  • you're right, I'm wrong.
    – user300871
    15 hours ago













up vote
3
down vote










up vote
3
down vote









Short answer: Yes.



While David C. Ullrich has given what seems to be a good answer, there's a fatal flaw. It assumes that $f$ is defined everywhere in some interval. The question, however, only says that the domain is in $Bbb{R}$, and makes no other assertions.



The function:



In fact, there is a function $f$ which is defined on the rationals that has the property you want. In fact, it has the property that for all $x_0inBbb{R}$ it has $$lim_{xto x_0} f(x)= infty.$$



Define $f:Bbb{Q}to Bbb{R}$ by $f(p/q)=q$, where $p/q$ is the expression of the rational number in least terms.



Then for any $n$, the set of points at which $f$ has value less than or equal to $n$ is a subset of $bigcup_{k=1}^nfrac{1}{k}Bbb{Z}$, which is a finite union of discrete subsets of $Bbb{R}$, and hence itself a discrete subset of $Bbb{R}$.



Thus every point of $Bbb{R}$ has a punctured neighborhood disjoint from this set, and hence for every $ninBbb{N}$, and every $x_0inBbb{R}$ there exists $epsilon > 0$ such that for all $qin Bbb{Q}$ with $0<|x_0-q|<epsilon$ $f(q) > n$. However, this is exactly what it means for
$$lim_{xto x_0} f(x) = infty.$$






share|cite|improve this answer














Short answer: Yes.



While David C. Ullrich has given what seems to be a good answer, there's a fatal flaw. It assumes that $f$ is defined everywhere in some interval. The question, however, only says that the domain is in $Bbb{R}$, and makes no other assertions.



The function:



In fact, there is a function $f$ which is defined on the rationals that has the property you want. In fact, it has the property that for all $x_0inBbb{R}$ it has $$lim_{xto x_0} f(x)= infty.$$



Define $f:Bbb{Q}to Bbb{R}$ by $f(p/q)=q$, where $p/q$ is the expression of the rational number in least terms.



Then for any $n$, the set of points at which $f$ has value less than or equal to $n$ is a subset of $bigcup_{k=1}^nfrac{1}{k}Bbb{Z}$, which is a finite union of discrete subsets of $Bbb{R}$, and hence itself a discrete subset of $Bbb{R}$.



Thus every point of $Bbb{R}$ has a punctured neighborhood disjoint from this set, and hence for every $ninBbb{N}$, and every $x_0inBbb{R}$ there exists $epsilon > 0$ such that for all $qin Bbb{Q}$ with $0<|x_0-q|<epsilon$ $f(q) > n$. However, this is exactly what it means for
$$lim_{xto x_0} f(x) = infty.$$







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited yesterday

























answered yesterday









jgon

10.2k11638




10.2k11638












  • Wrong argument at $0<|x-x_0|<epsilon$. By definition, $lim_{xrightarrow x_0}f(x)=infty$ means $forall nin mathbb{N}, exists epsilon>0$ such that $f(x)>n$ for all $x$ satisfying $|x-x_0|<epsilon$ (not $0<|x-x_0|<epsilon$).
    – user300871
    16 hours ago








  • 2




    @user300871 That's incorrect. If we defined it that way, then the limit of the function $g(x)=1/x^2$ for $xne 0$ with $g(0)=0$ wouldn't have that the limit at 0 is $infty$. Limits of functions are usually defined by using punctured neighborhoods, so that the value of the function at the point doesn't influence the limit.
    – jgon
    16 hours ago










  • you're right, I'm wrong.
    – user300871
    15 hours ago


















  • Wrong argument at $0<|x-x_0|<epsilon$. By definition, $lim_{xrightarrow x_0}f(x)=infty$ means $forall nin mathbb{N}, exists epsilon>0$ such that $f(x)>n$ for all $x$ satisfying $|x-x_0|<epsilon$ (not $0<|x-x_0|<epsilon$).
    – user300871
    16 hours ago








  • 2




    @user300871 That's incorrect. If we defined it that way, then the limit of the function $g(x)=1/x^2$ for $xne 0$ with $g(0)=0$ wouldn't have that the limit at 0 is $infty$. Limits of functions are usually defined by using punctured neighborhoods, so that the value of the function at the point doesn't influence the limit.
    – jgon
    16 hours ago










  • you're right, I'm wrong.
    – user300871
    15 hours ago
















Wrong argument at $0<|x-x_0|<epsilon$. By definition, $lim_{xrightarrow x_0}f(x)=infty$ means $forall nin mathbb{N}, exists epsilon>0$ such that $f(x)>n$ for all $x$ satisfying $|x-x_0|<epsilon$ (not $0<|x-x_0|<epsilon$).
– user300871
16 hours ago






Wrong argument at $0<|x-x_0|<epsilon$. By definition, $lim_{xrightarrow x_0}f(x)=infty$ means $forall nin mathbb{N}, exists epsilon>0$ such that $f(x)>n$ for all $x$ satisfying $|x-x_0|<epsilon$ (not $0<|x-x_0|<epsilon$).
– user300871
16 hours ago






2




2




@user300871 That's incorrect. If we defined it that way, then the limit of the function $g(x)=1/x^2$ for $xne 0$ with $g(0)=0$ wouldn't have that the limit at 0 is $infty$. Limits of functions are usually defined by using punctured neighborhoods, so that the value of the function at the point doesn't influence the limit.
– jgon
16 hours ago




@user300871 That's incorrect. If we defined it that way, then the limit of the function $g(x)=1/x^2$ for $xne 0$ with $g(0)=0$ wouldn't have that the limit at 0 is $infty$. Limits of functions are usually defined by using punctured neighborhoods, so that the value of the function at the point doesn't influence the limit.
– jgon
16 hours ago












you're right, I'm wrong.
– user300871
15 hours ago




you're right, I'm wrong.
– user300871
15 hours ago



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