Taking complex solution on $frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = 0$
$begingroup$
Is $i$ a complex solution to $$ frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = 0 ;?$$
Knowing that it has no real solutions, substituting $i$ leaves $frac{1}{0}$ which for me is equal to zero. Is this right?
algebra-precalculus complex-numbers
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Is $i$ a complex solution to $$ frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = 0 ;?$$
Knowing that it has no real solutions, substituting $i$ leaves $frac{1}{0}$ which for me is equal to zero. Is this right?
algebra-precalculus complex-numbers
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Is $i$ a complex solution to $$ frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = 0 ;?$$
Knowing that it has no real solutions, substituting $i$ leaves $frac{1}{0}$ which for me is equal to zero. Is this right?
algebra-precalculus complex-numbers
$endgroup$
Is $i$ a complex solution to $$ frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = 0 ;?$$
Knowing that it has no real solutions, substituting $i$ leaves $frac{1}{0}$ which for me is equal to zero. Is this right?
algebra-precalculus complex-numbers
algebra-precalculus complex-numbers
edited Dec 19 '18 at 20:53
Eric Wofsey
184k13211338
184k13211338
asked Nov 10 '18 at 10:34
MMJMMMJM
3351111
3351111
add a comment |
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
No, this is wrong. $1/0$ is definitely not equal to zero, it is rather an undefined expression. Note that in complex analysis functions are defined in similar ways. If you wanted to consider that expression over $mathbb C$, it would be :
$$f(z) = frac{1}{z^2+1}, quad z in mathbb Csetminus{pm i}$$
The denominator can never be zero no matter if you're studying strictly real numbers or complex numbers.
The equation
$$f(z) = 0 implies frac{1}{z^2+1} = 0$$
is false, as it has no solutions at all.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
If we solve for $$frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = frac{1}{0}$$ will it have $i$ be a solution or not ?(assuming that $frac{1}{0}$ would not be simplified) since begin{align} frac{1}{x^2 + 1} &= frac{1}{0}\ frac{1}{(i)^2 + 1} &= frac{1}{0}\ frac{1}{0} &= frac{1}{0} end{align}
$endgroup$
– MMJM
Nov 10 '18 at 11:13
$begingroup$
@MMJM You cannot use $1/0$ as an expression in whatever you do, it is not a properly defined mathematical substance. It is an undefined expression and that's why you yield contradictions when you use it. Recall that a fraction $frac{a}{b}$ is defined iff $b neq 0$.
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Nov 10 '18 at 11:15
$begingroup$
I misunderstood $frac{1}{0}$ at first when I posted the question. Now I get the point.
$endgroup$
– MMJM
Nov 10 '18 at 11:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We have that
$$frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = 0$$
is an expression defined for $x^2+1 neq 0$ and it has not (real nor complex) solutions.
Indeed for any $zin mathbb{C}$ we have
$$frac{1}{z^2 + 1} = 0 implies left|frac{1}{z^2 + 1}right| = |0| $$
but
$$left|frac{1}{z^2 + 1}right|=frac{1}{|z^2 + 1|}neq 0quad forall z$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, the complex field does not provide solution to $$frac {1}{x^2+1}=0$$
That is equivalent to $$1=0times (x^2+1)$$ and as you know the product of $0$ with any number is $0$ not $1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that for $xinmathbb{C}$ and polynomials $P$ and $Q$,
$$ frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} = 0 Leftrightarrow P(x) = 0 text{ and } Q(x)neq 0 $$
Since in this case $P(x) equiv 1 neq 0$, there are no $x$ such that $frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} = 0$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
No, this is wrong. $1/0$ is definitely not equal to zero, it is rather an undefined expression. Note that in complex analysis functions are defined in similar ways. If you wanted to consider that expression over $mathbb C$, it would be :
$$f(z) = frac{1}{z^2+1}, quad z in mathbb Csetminus{pm i}$$
The denominator can never be zero no matter if you're studying strictly real numbers or complex numbers.
The equation
$$f(z) = 0 implies frac{1}{z^2+1} = 0$$
is false, as it has no solutions at all.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
If we solve for $$frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = frac{1}{0}$$ will it have $i$ be a solution or not ?(assuming that $frac{1}{0}$ would not be simplified) since begin{align} frac{1}{x^2 + 1} &= frac{1}{0}\ frac{1}{(i)^2 + 1} &= frac{1}{0}\ frac{1}{0} &= frac{1}{0} end{align}
$endgroup$
– MMJM
Nov 10 '18 at 11:13
$begingroup$
@MMJM You cannot use $1/0$ as an expression in whatever you do, it is not a properly defined mathematical substance. It is an undefined expression and that's why you yield contradictions when you use it. Recall that a fraction $frac{a}{b}$ is defined iff $b neq 0$.
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Nov 10 '18 at 11:15
$begingroup$
I misunderstood $frac{1}{0}$ at first when I posted the question. Now I get the point.
$endgroup$
– MMJM
Nov 10 '18 at 11:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, this is wrong. $1/0$ is definitely not equal to zero, it is rather an undefined expression. Note that in complex analysis functions are defined in similar ways. If you wanted to consider that expression over $mathbb C$, it would be :
$$f(z) = frac{1}{z^2+1}, quad z in mathbb Csetminus{pm i}$$
The denominator can never be zero no matter if you're studying strictly real numbers or complex numbers.
The equation
$$f(z) = 0 implies frac{1}{z^2+1} = 0$$
is false, as it has no solutions at all.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
If we solve for $$frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = frac{1}{0}$$ will it have $i$ be a solution or not ?(assuming that $frac{1}{0}$ would not be simplified) since begin{align} frac{1}{x^2 + 1} &= frac{1}{0}\ frac{1}{(i)^2 + 1} &= frac{1}{0}\ frac{1}{0} &= frac{1}{0} end{align}
$endgroup$
– MMJM
Nov 10 '18 at 11:13
$begingroup$
@MMJM You cannot use $1/0$ as an expression in whatever you do, it is not a properly defined mathematical substance. It is an undefined expression and that's why you yield contradictions when you use it. Recall that a fraction $frac{a}{b}$ is defined iff $b neq 0$.
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Nov 10 '18 at 11:15
$begingroup$
I misunderstood $frac{1}{0}$ at first when I posted the question. Now I get the point.
$endgroup$
– MMJM
Nov 10 '18 at 11:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, this is wrong. $1/0$ is definitely not equal to zero, it is rather an undefined expression. Note that in complex analysis functions are defined in similar ways. If you wanted to consider that expression over $mathbb C$, it would be :
$$f(z) = frac{1}{z^2+1}, quad z in mathbb Csetminus{pm i}$$
The denominator can never be zero no matter if you're studying strictly real numbers or complex numbers.
The equation
$$f(z) = 0 implies frac{1}{z^2+1} = 0$$
is false, as it has no solutions at all.
$endgroup$
No, this is wrong. $1/0$ is definitely not equal to zero, it is rather an undefined expression. Note that in complex analysis functions are defined in similar ways. If you wanted to consider that expression over $mathbb C$, it would be :
$$f(z) = frac{1}{z^2+1}, quad z in mathbb Csetminus{pm i}$$
The denominator can never be zero no matter if you're studying strictly real numbers or complex numbers.
The equation
$$f(z) = 0 implies frac{1}{z^2+1} = 0$$
is false, as it has no solutions at all.
answered Nov 10 '18 at 10:38
RebellosRebellos
14.6k31247
14.6k31247
$begingroup$
If we solve for $$frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = frac{1}{0}$$ will it have $i$ be a solution or not ?(assuming that $frac{1}{0}$ would not be simplified) since begin{align} frac{1}{x^2 + 1} &= frac{1}{0}\ frac{1}{(i)^2 + 1} &= frac{1}{0}\ frac{1}{0} &= frac{1}{0} end{align}
$endgroup$
– MMJM
Nov 10 '18 at 11:13
$begingroup$
@MMJM You cannot use $1/0$ as an expression in whatever you do, it is not a properly defined mathematical substance. It is an undefined expression and that's why you yield contradictions when you use it. Recall that a fraction $frac{a}{b}$ is defined iff $b neq 0$.
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Nov 10 '18 at 11:15
$begingroup$
I misunderstood $frac{1}{0}$ at first when I posted the question. Now I get the point.
$endgroup$
– MMJM
Nov 10 '18 at 11:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If we solve for $$frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = frac{1}{0}$$ will it have $i$ be a solution or not ?(assuming that $frac{1}{0}$ would not be simplified) since begin{align} frac{1}{x^2 + 1} &= frac{1}{0}\ frac{1}{(i)^2 + 1} &= frac{1}{0}\ frac{1}{0} &= frac{1}{0} end{align}
$endgroup$
– MMJM
Nov 10 '18 at 11:13
$begingroup$
@MMJM You cannot use $1/0$ as an expression in whatever you do, it is not a properly defined mathematical substance. It is an undefined expression and that's why you yield contradictions when you use it. Recall that a fraction $frac{a}{b}$ is defined iff $b neq 0$.
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Nov 10 '18 at 11:15
$begingroup$
I misunderstood $frac{1}{0}$ at first when I posted the question. Now I get the point.
$endgroup$
– MMJM
Nov 10 '18 at 11:20
$begingroup$
If we solve for $$frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = frac{1}{0}$$ will it have $i$ be a solution or not ?(assuming that $frac{1}{0}$ would not be simplified) since begin{align} frac{1}{x^2 + 1} &= frac{1}{0}\ frac{1}{(i)^2 + 1} &= frac{1}{0}\ frac{1}{0} &= frac{1}{0} end{align}
$endgroup$
– MMJM
Nov 10 '18 at 11:13
$begingroup$
If we solve for $$frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = frac{1}{0}$$ will it have $i$ be a solution or not ?(assuming that $frac{1}{0}$ would not be simplified) since begin{align} frac{1}{x^2 + 1} &= frac{1}{0}\ frac{1}{(i)^2 + 1} &= frac{1}{0}\ frac{1}{0} &= frac{1}{0} end{align}
$endgroup$
– MMJM
Nov 10 '18 at 11:13
$begingroup$
@MMJM You cannot use $1/0$ as an expression in whatever you do, it is not a properly defined mathematical substance. It is an undefined expression and that's why you yield contradictions when you use it. Recall that a fraction $frac{a}{b}$ is defined iff $b neq 0$.
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Nov 10 '18 at 11:15
$begingroup$
@MMJM You cannot use $1/0$ as an expression in whatever you do, it is not a properly defined mathematical substance. It is an undefined expression and that's why you yield contradictions when you use it. Recall that a fraction $frac{a}{b}$ is defined iff $b neq 0$.
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Nov 10 '18 at 11:15
$begingroup$
I misunderstood $frac{1}{0}$ at first when I posted the question. Now I get the point.
$endgroup$
– MMJM
Nov 10 '18 at 11:20
$begingroup$
I misunderstood $frac{1}{0}$ at first when I posted the question. Now I get the point.
$endgroup$
– MMJM
Nov 10 '18 at 11:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We have that
$$frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = 0$$
is an expression defined for $x^2+1 neq 0$ and it has not (real nor complex) solutions.
Indeed for any $zin mathbb{C}$ we have
$$frac{1}{z^2 + 1} = 0 implies left|frac{1}{z^2 + 1}right| = |0| $$
but
$$left|frac{1}{z^2 + 1}right|=frac{1}{|z^2 + 1|}neq 0quad forall z$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We have that
$$frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = 0$$
is an expression defined for $x^2+1 neq 0$ and it has not (real nor complex) solutions.
Indeed for any $zin mathbb{C}$ we have
$$frac{1}{z^2 + 1} = 0 implies left|frac{1}{z^2 + 1}right| = |0| $$
but
$$left|frac{1}{z^2 + 1}right|=frac{1}{|z^2 + 1|}neq 0quad forall z$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We have that
$$frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = 0$$
is an expression defined for $x^2+1 neq 0$ and it has not (real nor complex) solutions.
Indeed for any $zin mathbb{C}$ we have
$$frac{1}{z^2 + 1} = 0 implies left|frac{1}{z^2 + 1}right| = |0| $$
but
$$left|frac{1}{z^2 + 1}right|=frac{1}{|z^2 + 1|}neq 0quad forall z$$
$endgroup$
We have that
$$frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = 0$$
is an expression defined for $x^2+1 neq 0$ and it has not (real nor complex) solutions.
Indeed for any $zin mathbb{C}$ we have
$$frac{1}{z^2 + 1} = 0 implies left|frac{1}{z^2 + 1}right| = |0| $$
but
$$left|frac{1}{z^2 + 1}right|=frac{1}{|z^2 + 1|}neq 0quad forall z$$
edited Nov 10 '18 at 10:52
answered Nov 10 '18 at 10:38
gimusigimusi
92.8k84494
92.8k84494
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, the complex field does not provide solution to $$frac {1}{x^2+1}=0$$
That is equivalent to $$1=0times (x^2+1)$$ and as you know the product of $0$ with any number is $0$ not $1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, the complex field does not provide solution to $$frac {1}{x^2+1}=0$$
That is equivalent to $$1=0times (x^2+1)$$ and as you know the product of $0$ with any number is $0$ not $1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, the complex field does not provide solution to $$frac {1}{x^2+1}=0$$
That is equivalent to $$1=0times (x^2+1)$$ and as you know the product of $0$ with any number is $0$ not $1$.
$endgroup$
No, the complex field does not provide solution to $$frac {1}{x^2+1}=0$$
That is equivalent to $$1=0times (x^2+1)$$ and as you know the product of $0$ with any number is $0$ not $1$.
answered Nov 10 '18 at 10:42
Mohammad Riazi-KermaniMohammad Riazi-Kermani
41.5k42061
41.5k42061
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that for $xinmathbb{C}$ and polynomials $P$ and $Q$,
$$ frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} = 0 Leftrightarrow P(x) = 0 text{ and } Q(x)neq 0 $$
Since in this case $P(x) equiv 1 neq 0$, there are no $x$ such that $frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} = 0$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that for $xinmathbb{C}$ and polynomials $P$ and $Q$,
$$ frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} = 0 Leftrightarrow P(x) = 0 text{ and } Q(x)neq 0 $$
Since in this case $P(x) equiv 1 neq 0$, there are no $x$ such that $frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} = 0$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that for $xinmathbb{C}$ and polynomials $P$ and $Q$,
$$ frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} = 0 Leftrightarrow P(x) = 0 text{ and } Q(x)neq 0 $$
Since in this case $P(x) equiv 1 neq 0$, there are no $x$ such that $frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} = 0$.
$endgroup$
Note that for $xinmathbb{C}$ and polynomials $P$ and $Q$,
$$ frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} = 0 Leftrightarrow P(x) = 0 text{ and } Q(x)neq 0 $$
Since in this case $P(x) equiv 1 neq 0$, there are no $x$ such that $frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} = 0$.
answered Nov 10 '18 at 10:43
AlexanderJ93AlexanderJ93
6,158823
6,158823
add a comment |
add a comment |
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