Conditions for defining the Riemann Integral of $f$ over $[a,b]$ as a sum of rectangles with “uniform”...
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My book goes over how to prove that every continuous function $f: D rightarrow mathbb{R}$ has an antiderivative, which we previously determined/defined is the same as the Riemann Integral. The proof uses the distance between adjacent points of a partition on a closed interval $[a,b]$ to represent the "base" of the rectangles whose areas we sum to form the definite integral.
In a remark, it mentions that if we wanted to use "uniform" partitions, i.e. for any two points in the partition $t_j$, $t_{j+1}in [a,b]$, $(t_{j+1} - t_j) = frac{b-a}{N}$ where $N$ is the number of points in the partition, we must also show that $f$ is uniformly continuous.
Intuitively, I can see how this makes sense for a function like $f(x) = sin(frac{1}{x})$, where as we approach 0 on either side, the rectangles become a worse and worse approximation of the area under the graph. Is this the correct reasoning or am i missing something?
real-analysis riemann-integration
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My book goes over how to prove that every continuous function $f: D rightarrow mathbb{R}$ has an antiderivative, which we previously determined/defined is the same as the Riemann Integral. The proof uses the distance between adjacent points of a partition on a closed interval $[a,b]$ to represent the "base" of the rectangles whose areas we sum to form the definite integral.
In a remark, it mentions that if we wanted to use "uniform" partitions, i.e. for any two points in the partition $t_j$, $t_{j+1}in [a,b]$, $(t_{j+1} - t_j) = frac{b-a}{N}$ where $N$ is the number of points in the partition, we must also show that $f$ is uniformly continuous.
Intuitively, I can see how this makes sense for a function like $f(x) = sin(frac{1}{x})$, where as we approach 0 on either side, the rectangles become a worse and worse approximation of the area under the graph. Is this the correct reasoning or am i missing something?
real-analysis riemann-integration
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
My book goes over how to prove that every continuous function $f: D rightarrow mathbb{R}$ has an antiderivative, which we previously determined/defined is the same as the Riemann Integral. The proof uses the distance between adjacent points of a partition on a closed interval $[a,b]$ to represent the "base" of the rectangles whose areas we sum to form the definite integral.
In a remark, it mentions that if we wanted to use "uniform" partitions, i.e. for any two points in the partition $t_j$, $t_{j+1}in [a,b]$, $(t_{j+1} - t_j) = frac{b-a}{N}$ where $N$ is the number of points in the partition, we must also show that $f$ is uniformly continuous.
Intuitively, I can see how this makes sense for a function like $f(x) = sin(frac{1}{x})$, where as we approach 0 on either side, the rectangles become a worse and worse approximation of the area under the graph. Is this the correct reasoning or am i missing something?
real-analysis riemann-integration
$endgroup$
My book goes over how to prove that every continuous function $f: D rightarrow mathbb{R}$ has an antiderivative, which we previously determined/defined is the same as the Riemann Integral. The proof uses the distance between adjacent points of a partition on a closed interval $[a,b]$ to represent the "base" of the rectangles whose areas we sum to form the definite integral.
In a remark, it mentions that if we wanted to use "uniform" partitions, i.e. for any two points in the partition $t_j$, $t_{j+1}in [a,b]$, $(t_{j+1} - t_j) = frac{b-a}{N}$ where $N$ is the number of points in the partition, we must also show that $f$ is uniformly continuous.
Intuitively, I can see how this makes sense for a function like $f(x) = sin(frac{1}{x})$, where as we approach 0 on either side, the rectangles become a worse and worse approximation of the area under the graph. Is this the correct reasoning or am i missing something?
real-analysis riemann-integration
real-analysis riemann-integration
edited Dec 20 '18 at 1:57
hiroshin
asked Dec 20 '18 at 1:48
hiroshinhiroshin
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