Conditions for defining the Riemann Integral of $f$ over $[a,b]$ as a sum of rectangles with “uniform”...












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My book goes over how to prove that every continuous function $f: D rightarrow mathbb{R}$ has an antiderivative, which we previously determined/defined is the same as the Riemann Integral. The proof uses the distance between adjacent points of a partition on a closed interval $[a,b]$ to represent the "base" of the rectangles whose areas we sum to form the definite integral.



In a remark, it mentions that if we wanted to use "uniform" partitions, i.e. for any two points in the partition $t_j$, $t_{j+1}in [a,b]$, $(t_{j+1} - t_j) = frac{b-a}{N}$ where $N$ is the number of points in the partition, we must also show that $f$ is uniformly continuous.



Intuitively, I can see how this makes sense for a function like $f(x) = sin(frac{1}{x})$, where as we approach 0 on either side, the rectangles become a worse and worse approximation of the area under the graph. Is this the correct reasoning or am i missing something?










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    $begingroup$


    My book goes over how to prove that every continuous function $f: D rightarrow mathbb{R}$ has an antiderivative, which we previously determined/defined is the same as the Riemann Integral. The proof uses the distance between adjacent points of a partition on a closed interval $[a,b]$ to represent the "base" of the rectangles whose areas we sum to form the definite integral.



    In a remark, it mentions that if we wanted to use "uniform" partitions, i.e. for any two points in the partition $t_j$, $t_{j+1}in [a,b]$, $(t_{j+1} - t_j) = frac{b-a}{N}$ where $N$ is the number of points in the partition, we must also show that $f$ is uniformly continuous.



    Intuitively, I can see how this makes sense for a function like $f(x) = sin(frac{1}{x})$, where as we approach 0 on either side, the rectangles become a worse and worse approximation of the area under the graph. Is this the correct reasoning or am i missing something?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      My book goes over how to prove that every continuous function $f: D rightarrow mathbb{R}$ has an antiderivative, which we previously determined/defined is the same as the Riemann Integral. The proof uses the distance between adjacent points of a partition on a closed interval $[a,b]$ to represent the "base" of the rectangles whose areas we sum to form the definite integral.



      In a remark, it mentions that if we wanted to use "uniform" partitions, i.e. for any two points in the partition $t_j$, $t_{j+1}in [a,b]$, $(t_{j+1} - t_j) = frac{b-a}{N}$ where $N$ is the number of points in the partition, we must also show that $f$ is uniformly continuous.



      Intuitively, I can see how this makes sense for a function like $f(x) = sin(frac{1}{x})$, where as we approach 0 on either side, the rectangles become a worse and worse approximation of the area under the graph. Is this the correct reasoning or am i missing something?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      My book goes over how to prove that every continuous function $f: D rightarrow mathbb{R}$ has an antiderivative, which we previously determined/defined is the same as the Riemann Integral. The proof uses the distance between adjacent points of a partition on a closed interval $[a,b]$ to represent the "base" of the rectangles whose areas we sum to form the definite integral.



      In a remark, it mentions that if we wanted to use "uniform" partitions, i.e. for any two points in the partition $t_j$, $t_{j+1}in [a,b]$, $(t_{j+1} - t_j) = frac{b-a}{N}$ where $N$ is the number of points in the partition, we must also show that $f$ is uniformly continuous.



      Intuitively, I can see how this makes sense for a function like $f(x) = sin(frac{1}{x})$, where as we approach 0 on either side, the rectangles become a worse and worse approximation of the area under the graph. Is this the correct reasoning or am i missing something?







      real-analysis riemann-integration






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      edited Dec 20 '18 at 1:57







      hiroshin

















      asked Dec 20 '18 at 1:48









      hiroshinhiroshin

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