The parametric equation of a cone $z = sqrt{x^{2} + y^{2}}$.












0














The given equation is -
$z = sqrt{x^{2} + y^{2}} , 0 le z le 1$




Let $x = r cos t$, $y = r sin t$ and $z = r$; where $0 le r le 1$
and $0 le t le 2 pi$.




Since $z$ is taken from $0$ to $1$ , so $r$ is also taken from $0$ to $1$



I didn't understand why $t$ is in between $0$ and $2 pi$?










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    0














    The given equation is -
    $z = sqrt{x^{2} + y^{2}} , 0 le z le 1$




    Let $x = r cos t$, $y = r sin t$ and $z = r$; where $0 le r le 1$
    and $0 le t le 2 pi$.




    Since $z$ is taken from $0$ to $1$ , so $r$ is also taken from $0$ to $1$



    I didn't understand why $t$ is in between $0$ and $2 pi$?










    share|cite|improve this question



























      0












      0








      0







      The given equation is -
      $z = sqrt{x^{2} + y^{2}} , 0 le z le 1$




      Let $x = r cos t$, $y = r sin t$ and $z = r$; where $0 le r le 1$
      and $0 le t le 2 pi$.




      Since $z$ is taken from $0$ to $1$ , so $r$ is also taken from $0$ to $1$



      I didn't understand why $t$ is in between $0$ and $2 pi$?










      share|cite|improve this question















      The given equation is -
      $z = sqrt{x^{2} + y^{2}} , 0 le z le 1$




      Let $x = r cos t$, $y = r sin t$ and $z = r$; where $0 le r le 1$
      and $0 le t le 2 pi$.




      Since $z$ is taken from $0$ to $1$ , so $r$ is also taken from $0$ to $1$



      I didn't understand why $t$ is in between $0$ and $2 pi$?







      calculus parametric






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      share|cite|improve this question













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      edited Dec 11 '18 at 7:05









      Nosrati

      26.5k62354




      26.5k62354










      asked Dec 11 '18 at 5:13









      Mathsaddict

      2608




      2608






















          1 Answer
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          At any given value of $r$ you get a value of $z,$ the height of the cone.



          But a height and a value $r$ by themselves don't give you a cone. To have a cone you need a circular base. It will also have a circular cross section in any plane parallel to the base between the base and the apex.



          Now review parametric formulas for a circle and see anything matches part of what you see here.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • In the parametric formula of circle in $x-y$ plane, $x = r cos t$ and $y = r sin t$ . Where $t$ is the angle between $x$ axis and the position vector of point $(x,y)$. To make a complete circle, $t$ moves from 0 to $2pi$. So, in the formula of base of cone, which is a circle, $t$ should also move from 0 to $2pi$ to make the comlete base. Is this okay?
            – Mathsaddict
            Dec 11 '18 at 6:11












          • That is the right idea.
            – David K
            Dec 11 '18 at 12:15











          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          0














          At any given value of $r$ you get a value of $z,$ the height of the cone.



          But a height and a value $r$ by themselves don't give you a cone. To have a cone you need a circular base. It will also have a circular cross section in any plane parallel to the base between the base and the apex.



          Now review parametric formulas for a circle and see anything matches part of what you see here.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • In the parametric formula of circle in $x-y$ plane, $x = r cos t$ and $y = r sin t$ . Where $t$ is the angle between $x$ axis and the position vector of point $(x,y)$. To make a complete circle, $t$ moves from 0 to $2pi$. So, in the formula of base of cone, which is a circle, $t$ should also move from 0 to $2pi$ to make the comlete base. Is this okay?
            – Mathsaddict
            Dec 11 '18 at 6:11












          • That is the right idea.
            – David K
            Dec 11 '18 at 12:15
















          0














          At any given value of $r$ you get a value of $z,$ the height of the cone.



          But a height and a value $r$ by themselves don't give you a cone. To have a cone you need a circular base. It will also have a circular cross section in any plane parallel to the base between the base and the apex.



          Now review parametric formulas for a circle and see anything matches part of what you see here.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • In the parametric formula of circle in $x-y$ plane, $x = r cos t$ and $y = r sin t$ . Where $t$ is the angle between $x$ axis and the position vector of point $(x,y)$. To make a complete circle, $t$ moves from 0 to $2pi$. So, in the formula of base of cone, which is a circle, $t$ should also move from 0 to $2pi$ to make the comlete base. Is this okay?
            – Mathsaddict
            Dec 11 '18 at 6:11












          • That is the right idea.
            – David K
            Dec 11 '18 at 12:15














          0












          0








          0






          At any given value of $r$ you get a value of $z,$ the height of the cone.



          But a height and a value $r$ by themselves don't give you a cone. To have a cone you need a circular base. It will also have a circular cross section in any plane parallel to the base between the base and the apex.



          Now review parametric formulas for a circle and see anything matches part of what you see here.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          At any given value of $r$ you get a value of $z,$ the height of the cone.



          But a height and a value $r$ by themselves don't give you a cone. To have a cone you need a circular base. It will also have a circular cross section in any plane parallel to the base between the base and the apex.



          Now review parametric formulas for a circle and see anything matches part of what you see here.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 11 '18 at 5:51









          David K

          52.7k340115




          52.7k340115












          • In the parametric formula of circle in $x-y$ plane, $x = r cos t$ and $y = r sin t$ . Where $t$ is the angle between $x$ axis and the position vector of point $(x,y)$. To make a complete circle, $t$ moves from 0 to $2pi$. So, in the formula of base of cone, which is a circle, $t$ should also move from 0 to $2pi$ to make the comlete base. Is this okay?
            – Mathsaddict
            Dec 11 '18 at 6:11












          • That is the right idea.
            – David K
            Dec 11 '18 at 12:15


















          • In the parametric formula of circle in $x-y$ plane, $x = r cos t$ and $y = r sin t$ . Where $t$ is the angle between $x$ axis and the position vector of point $(x,y)$. To make a complete circle, $t$ moves from 0 to $2pi$. So, in the formula of base of cone, which is a circle, $t$ should also move from 0 to $2pi$ to make the comlete base. Is this okay?
            – Mathsaddict
            Dec 11 '18 at 6:11












          • That is the right idea.
            – David K
            Dec 11 '18 at 12:15
















          In the parametric formula of circle in $x-y$ plane, $x = r cos t$ and $y = r sin t$ . Where $t$ is the angle between $x$ axis and the position vector of point $(x,y)$. To make a complete circle, $t$ moves from 0 to $2pi$. So, in the formula of base of cone, which is a circle, $t$ should also move from 0 to $2pi$ to make the comlete base. Is this okay?
          – Mathsaddict
          Dec 11 '18 at 6:11






          In the parametric formula of circle in $x-y$ plane, $x = r cos t$ and $y = r sin t$ . Where $t$ is the angle between $x$ axis and the position vector of point $(x,y)$. To make a complete circle, $t$ moves from 0 to $2pi$. So, in the formula of base of cone, which is a circle, $t$ should also move from 0 to $2pi$ to make the comlete base. Is this okay?
          – Mathsaddict
          Dec 11 '18 at 6:11














          That is the right idea.
          – David K
          Dec 11 '18 at 12:15




          That is the right idea.
          – David K
          Dec 11 '18 at 12:15


















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