$(x-1)|P(x^n)implies (x^n-1)|P(x^n)$ [closed]












0














Let $P(x)$ be a polynomial with real coefficients of degree $ninmathbb{N}$. I want to prove that if $(x-1)|P(x^n)$ then $(x^n-1)|P(x^n)$.










share|cite|improve this question















closed as off-topic by Greg Martin, Shaun, Guido A., GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Gibbs Dec 11 '18 at 16:18


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Greg Martin, Shaun, Guido A., GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Gibbs

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









  • 2




    What are your thoughts? What have you tried? Where are you stuck? You need to provide context for your question. Right now, it just looks like you want somebody to do your homework for you; that's not what this site is for. If you add some appropriate context, we will be happy to help.
    – Greg Martin
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:23










  • Rather than saying $xin mathbb R$, it would probably be better to say that $x$ is an indeterminate value or "variable". The indicated divisions are thus to be carried out in the ring $mathbb R[x]$ of univariate polynomials over the field of real numbers.
    – hardmath
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:23






  • 1




    Hint: prove that $(x-1)|Q(x)$ as intermediate step.
    – Dante Grevino
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:24










  • Indeed, as the previous users have also pointed out, treating $x$ as though it were a real number or a variable of sorts is highly undesirable. The only proper way to refer to it is as an ''indeterminate" (denoting them with capital letters is also the elegant way to go, but few teextbooks actually bother, unfortunately).
    – ΑΘΩ
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:36
















0














Let $P(x)$ be a polynomial with real coefficients of degree $ninmathbb{N}$. I want to prove that if $(x-1)|P(x^n)$ then $(x^n-1)|P(x^n)$.










share|cite|improve this question















closed as off-topic by Greg Martin, Shaun, Guido A., GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Gibbs Dec 11 '18 at 16:18


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Greg Martin, Shaun, Guido A., GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Gibbs

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









  • 2




    What are your thoughts? What have you tried? Where are you stuck? You need to provide context for your question. Right now, it just looks like you want somebody to do your homework for you; that's not what this site is for. If you add some appropriate context, we will be happy to help.
    – Greg Martin
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:23










  • Rather than saying $xin mathbb R$, it would probably be better to say that $x$ is an indeterminate value or "variable". The indicated divisions are thus to be carried out in the ring $mathbb R[x]$ of univariate polynomials over the field of real numbers.
    – hardmath
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:23






  • 1




    Hint: prove that $(x-1)|Q(x)$ as intermediate step.
    – Dante Grevino
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:24










  • Indeed, as the previous users have also pointed out, treating $x$ as though it were a real number or a variable of sorts is highly undesirable. The only proper way to refer to it is as an ''indeterminate" (denoting them with capital letters is also the elegant way to go, but few teextbooks actually bother, unfortunately).
    – ΑΘΩ
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:36














0












0








0







Let $P(x)$ be a polynomial with real coefficients of degree $ninmathbb{N}$. I want to prove that if $(x-1)|P(x^n)$ then $(x^n-1)|P(x^n)$.










share|cite|improve this question















Let $P(x)$ be a polynomial with real coefficients of degree $ninmathbb{N}$. I want to prove that if $(x-1)|P(x^n)$ then $(x^n-1)|P(x^n)$.







polynomials






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 11 '18 at 15:31

























asked Dec 11 '18 at 6:17









Freddy

42




42




closed as off-topic by Greg Martin, Shaun, Guido A., GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Gibbs Dec 11 '18 at 16:18


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Greg Martin, Shaun, Guido A., GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Gibbs

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by Greg Martin, Shaun, Guido A., GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Gibbs Dec 11 '18 at 16:18


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Greg Martin, Shaun, Guido A., GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Gibbs

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 2




    What are your thoughts? What have you tried? Where are you stuck? You need to provide context for your question. Right now, it just looks like you want somebody to do your homework for you; that's not what this site is for. If you add some appropriate context, we will be happy to help.
    – Greg Martin
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:23










  • Rather than saying $xin mathbb R$, it would probably be better to say that $x$ is an indeterminate value or "variable". The indicated divisions are thus to be carried out in the ring $mathbb R[x]$ of univariate polynomials over the field of real numbers.
    – hardmath
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:23






  • 1




    Hint: prove that $(x-1)|Q(x)$ as intermediate step.
    – Dante Grevino
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:24










  • Indeed, as the previous users have also pointed out, treating $x$ as though it were a real number or a variable of sorts is highly undesirable. The only proper way to refer to it is as an ''indeterminate" (denoting them with capital letters is also the elegant way to go, but few teextbooks actually bother, unfortunately).
    – ΑΘΩ
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:36














  • 2




    What are your thoughts? What have you tried? Where are you stuck? You need to provide context for your question. Right now, it just looks like you want somebody to do your homework for you; that's not what this site is for. If you add some appropriate context, we will be happy to help.
    – Greg Martin
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:23










  • Rather than saying $xin mathbb R$, it would probably be better to say that $x$ is an indeterminate value or "variable". The indicated divisions are thus to be carried out in the ring $mathbb R[x]$ of univariate polynomials over the field of real numbers.
    – hardmath
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:23






  • 1




    Hint: prove that $(x-1)|Q(x)$ as intermediate step.
    – Dante Grevino
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:24










  • Indeed, as the previous users have also pointed out, treating $x$ as though it were a real number or a variable of sorts is highly undesirable. The only proper way to refer to it is as an ''indeterminate" (denoting them with capital letters is also the elegant way to go, but few teextbooks actually bother, unfortunately).
    – ΑΘΩ
    Dec 11 '18 at 6:36








2




2




What are your thoughts? What have you tried? Where are you stuck? You need to provide context for your question. Right now, it just looks like you want somebody to do your homework for you; that's not what this site is for. If you add some appropriate context, we will be happy to help.
– Greg Martin
Dec 11 '18 at 6:23




What are your thoughts? What have you tried? Where are you stuck? You need to provide context for your question. Right now, it just looks like you want somebody to do your homework for you; that's not what this site is for. If you add some appropriate context, we will be happy to help.
– Greg Martin
Dec 11 '18 at 6:23












Rather than saying $xin mathbb R$, it would probably be better to say that $x$ is an indeterminate value or "variable". The indicated divisions are thus to be carried out in the ring $mathbb R[x]$ of univariate polynomials over the field of real numbers.
– hardmath
Dec 11 '18 at 6:23




Rather than saying $xin mathbb R$, it would probably be better to say that $x$ is an indeterminate value or "variable". The indicated divisions are thus to be carried out in the ring $mathbb R[x]$ of univariate polynomials over the field of real numbers.
– hardmath
Dec 11 '18 at 6:23




1




1




Hint: prove that $(x-1)|Q(x)$ as intermediate step.
– Dante Grevino
Dec 11 '18 at 6:24




Hint: prove that $(x-1)|Q(x)$ as intermediate step.
– Dante Grevino
Dec 11 '18 at 6:24












Indeed, as the previous users have also pointed out, treating $x$ as though it were a real number or a variable of sorts is highly undesirable. The only proper way to refer to it is as an ''indeterminate" (denoting them with capital letters is also the elegant way to go, but few teextbooks actually bother, unfortunately).
– ΑΘΩ
Dec 11 '18 at 6:36




Indeed, as the previous users have also pointed out, treating $x$ as though it were a real number or a variable of sorts is highly undesirable. The only proper way to refer to it is as an ''indeterminate" (denoting them with capital letters is also the elegant way to go, but few teextbooks actually bother, unfortunately).
– ΑΘΩ
Dec 11 '18 at 6:36










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















1














the asertion is that if $x=1$ satisfies $Q(x^n)=0$, then so does $x=zeta$ where $zeta^n = 1$.



set:
$$
Q(x^n) = sum_{k=0}^M a_k (x^n)^k
$$

since $x^n =1$ is a root, we also have:
$$
0 = sum_{k=0}^M a_k
$$

subtracting the second equation from the first:
$$
Q(x^n) = sum_{k=1}^M a_k(x^{kn} - 1)
$$



clearly, if $zeta^n$ = 1 then $zeta^{kn}=1$, so $x=zeta$ is a root of $Q(x^n)=0$






share|cite|improve this answer































    0














    A short but cute exercise. Recall the following




    Bezout's theorem (on divisibility): for any commutative ring $A$ , element $a in A$ and polynomial $f in A[X]$ it holds that $X-a | f$ if and only if $f(a)=0_A$.




    Let us apply this to your case. Allow me to redenote the polynomial $P$ by $f$ (matter of taste) and to introduce $g=f(X^n)$. As $X-1 | g$ we can infer that $g(1)=f(1)=0$, hence we also have $X-1 | f$. Writing this relation as $f=(X-1)h$, for a certain $h in mathbb{R}[X]$, you can employ the universality property of polynomial rings to substitute $X^n$ for $X$ in the above factorisation of $f$ and obtain
    $$g=(X^n-1)h(X^n)$$



    which means $X^n-1 | g$, q.e.d.






    share|cite|improve this answer





























      0














      $(x-1)|Q(x^n)=P(x)implies P(1)=0$ by the Factor Theorem.



      $implies P(1)=Q(1^n)=Q(1)=0$



      $implies (x-1)|Q(x)$



      $implies (x^n-1)|Q(x^n)$






      share|cite|improve this answer




























        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes








        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        1














        the asertion is that if $x=1$ satisfies $Q(x^n)=0$, then so does $x=zeta$ where $zeta^n = 1$.



        set:
        $$
        Q(x^n) = sum_{k=0}^M a_k (x^n)^k
        $$

        since $x^n =1$ is a root, we also have:
        $$
        0 = sum_{k=0}^M a_k
        $$

        subtracting the second equation from the first:
        $$
        Q(x^n) = sum_{k=1}^M a_k(x^{kn} - 1)
        $$



        clearly, if $zeta^n$ = 1 then $zeta^{kn}=1$, so $x=zeta$ is a root of $Q(x^n)=0$






        share|cite|improve this answer




























          1














          the asertion is that if $x=1$ satisfies $Q(x^n)=0$, then so does $x=zeta$ where $zeta^n = 1$.



          set:
          $$
          Q(x^n) = sum_{k=0}^M a_k (x^n)^k
          $$

          since $x^n =1$ is a root, we also have:
          $$
          0 = sum_{k=0}^M a_k
          $$

          subtracting the second equation from the first:
          $$
          Q(x^n) = sum_{k=1}^M a_k(x^{kn} - 1)
          $$



          clearly, if $zeta^n$ = 1 then $zeta^{kn}=1$, so $x=zeta$ is a root of $Q(x^n)=0$






          share|cite|improve this answer


























            1












            1








            1






            the asertion is that if $x=1$ satisfies $Q(x^n)=0$, then so does $x=zeta$ where $zeta^n = 1$.



            set:
            $$
            Q(x^n) = sum_{k=0}^M a_k (x^n)^k
            $$

            since $x^n =1$ is a root, we also have:
            $$
            0 = sum_{k=0}^M a_k
            $$

            subtracting the second equation from the first:
            $$
            Q(x^n) = sum_{k=1}^M a_k(x^{kn} - 1)
            $$



            clearly, if $zeta^n$ = 1 then $zeta^{kn}=1$, so $x=zeta$ is a root of $Q(x^n)=0$






            share|cite|improve this answer














            the asertion is that if $x=1$ satisfies $Q(x^n)=0$, then so does $x=zeta$ where $zeta^n = 1$.



            set:
            $$
            Q(x^n) = sum_{k=0}^M a_k (x^n)^k
            $$

            since $x^n =1$ is a root, we also have:
            $$
            0 = sum_{k=0}^M a_k
            $$

            subtracting the second equation from the first:
            $$
            Q(x^n) = sum_{k=1}^M a_k(x^{kn} - 1)
            $$



            clearly, if $zeta^n$ = 1 then $zeta^{kn}=1$, so $x=zeta$ is a root of $Q(x^n)=0$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Dec 11 '18 at 7:19

























            answered Dec 11 '18 at 6:41









            David Holden

            14.7k21224




            14.7k21224























                0














                A short but cute exercise. Recall the following




                Bezout's theorem (on divisibility): for any commutative ring $A$ , element $a in A$ and polynomial $f in A[X]$ it holds that $X-a | f$ if and only if $f(a)=0_A$.




                Let us apply this to your case. Allow me to redenote the polynomial $P$ by $f$ (matter of taste) and to introduce $g=f(X^n)$. As $X-1 | g$ we can infer that $g(1)=f(1)=0$, hence we also have $X-1 | f$. Writing this relation as $f=(X-1)h$, for a certain $h in mathbb{R}[X]$, you can employ the universality property of polynomial rings to substitute $X^n$ for $X$ in the above factorisation of $f$ and obtain
                $$g=(X^n-1)h(X^n)$$



                which means $X^n-1 | g$, q.e.d.






                share|cite|improve this answer


























                  0














                  A short but cute exercise. Recall the following




                  Bezout's theorem (on divisibility): for any commutative ring $A$ , element $a in A$ and polynomial $f in A[X]$ it holds that $X-a | f$ if and only if $f(a)=0_A$.




                  Let us apply this to your case. Allow me to redenote the polynomial $P$ by $f$ (matter of taste) and to introduce $g=f(X^n)$. As $X-1 | g$ we can infer that $g(1)=f(1)=0$, hence we also have $X-1 | f$. Writing this relation as $f=(X-1)h$, for a certain $h in mathbb{R}[X]$, you can employ the universality property of polynomial rings to substitute $X^n$ for $X$ in the above factorisation of $f$ and obtain
                  $$g=(X^n-1)h(X^n)$$



                  which means $X^n-1 | g$, q.e.d.






                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                    0












                    0








                    0






                    A short but cute exercise. Recall the following




                    Bezout's theorem (on divisibility): for any commutative ring $A$ , element $a in A$ and polynomial $f in A[X]$ it holds that $X-a | f$ if and only if $f(a)=0_A$.




                    Let us apply this to your case. Allow me to redenote the polynomial $P$ by $f$ (matter of taste) and to introduce $g=f(X^n)$. As $X-1 | g$ we can infer that $g(1)=f(1)=0$, hence we also have $X-1 | f$. Writing this relation as $f=(X-1)h$, for a certain $h in mathbb{R}[X]$, you can employ the universality property of polynomial rings to substitute $X^n$ for $X$ in the above factorisation of $f$ and obtain
                    $$g=(X^n-1)h(X^n)$$



                    which means $X^n-1 | g$, q.e.d.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    A short but cute exercise. Recall the following




                    Bezout's theorem (on divisibility): for any commutative ring $A$ , element $a in A$ and polynomial $f in A[X]$ it holds that $X-a | f$ if and only if $f(a)=0_A$.




                    Let us apply this to your case. Allow me to redenote the polynomial $P$ by $f$ (matter of taste) and to introduce $g=f(X^n)$. As $X-1 | g$ we can infer that $g(1)=f(1)=0$, hence we also have $X-1 | f$. Writing this relation as $f=(X-1)h$, for a certain $h in mathbb{R}[X]$, you can employ the universality property of polynomial rings to substitute $X^n$ for $X$ in the above factorisation of $f$ and obtain
                    $$g=(X^n-1)h(X^n)$$



                    which means $X^n-1 | g$, q.e.d.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Dec 11 '18 at 6:33









                    ΑΘΩ

                    2363




                    2363























                        0














                        $(x-1)|Q(x^n)=P(x)implies P(1)=0$ by the Factor Theorem.



                        $implies P(1)=Q(1^n)=Q(1)=0$



                        $implies (x-1)|Q(x)$



                        $implies (x^n-1)|Q(x^n)$






                        share|cite|improve this answer


























                          0














                          $(x-1)|Q(x^n)=P(x)implies P(1)=0$ by the Factor Theorem.



                          $implies P(1)=Q(1^n)=Q(1)=0$



                          $implies (x-1)|Q(x)$



                          $implies (x^n-1)|Q(x^n)$






                          share|cite|improve this answer
























                            0












                            0








                            0






                            $(x-1)|Q(x^n)=P(x)implies P(1)=0$ by the Factor Theorem.



                            $implies P(1)=Q(1^n)=Q(1)=0$



                            $implies (x-1)|Q(x)$



                            $implies (x^n-1)|Q(x^n)$






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            $(x-1)|Q(x^n)=P(x)implies P(1)=0$ by the Factor Theorem.



                            $implies P(1)=Q(1^n)=Q(1)=0$



                            $implies (x-1)|Q(x)$



                            $implies (x^n-1)|Q(x^n)$







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Dec 11 '18 at 7:08









                            Shubham Johri

                            3,961717




                            3,961717















                                Popular posts from this blog

                                Karlovacs län

                                Cabo Verde

                                Fundamental Group of Connected Sum of two $3$-manifolds