Need some help for clarifying an example on infinite-dimensional vector space












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In the book Linear Algebra Done Right, example 2.14 said that $P_m(mathbb{F})$ is a finite-dimensional vector space for each non-negative integer $m$.



$P_m(mathbb{F})$ is defined as "For $m$ a nonnegative integer, $P_m(mathbb{F})$ denotes the set of all polynomials with coefficients in $mathbb{F}$ and degree at most $m$"



Then in example 2.16, it showed that $P(mathbb{F})$ is infinite-dimensional.



Consider any list of elements of $P(mathbb{F})$. Let $m$ denote the highest degree of the polynomials inn the list. Then every polynomial in the span of this list has degree at most $m$. Thus $z^{m+1}$ is not in the span of our list. Hence no list spans $P(mathbb{F})$. Thus $P(mathbb{F})$ is infinite dimensional.



I am a bit confused on why $P_m(mathbb{F})$ is finite dimensional, and $P(mathbb{F})$ is infinite dimensional.



Is it because $P_m(mathbb{F})$ is just talking about polynomials with degree at most $m$, while $P(mathbb{F})$ is talking about polynomials with degree that can be higher than $m$?










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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Yes that's the reason. In $P(mathbb{F})$ the degree is unbounded. You have polynomials of all degrees.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Dec 29 '18 at 22:51








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    I love when people answer their own question in the question itself :)
    $endgroup$
    – James Groon
    Dec 29 '18 at 22:52
















0












$begingroup$


In the book Linear Algebra Done Right, example 2.14 said that $P_m(mathbb{F})$ is a finite-dimensional vector space for each non-negative integer $m$.



$P_m(mathbb{F})$ is defined as "For $m$ a nonnegative integer, $P_m(mathbb{F})$ denotes the set of all polynomials with coefficients in $mathbb{F}$ and degree at most $m$"



Then in example 2.16, it showed that $P(mathbb{F})$ is infinite-dimensional.



Consider any list of elements of $P(mathbb{F})$. Let $m$ denote the highest degree of the polynomials inn the list. Then every polynomial in the span of this list has degree at most $m$. Thus $z^{m+1}$ is not in the span of our list. Hence no list spans $P(mathbb{F})$. Thus $P(mathbb{F})$ is infinite dimensional.



I am a bit confused on why $P_m(mathbb{F})$ is finite dimensional, and $P(mathbb{F})$ is infinite dimensional.



Is it because $P_m(mathbb{F})$ is just talking about polynomials with degree at most $m$, while $P(mathbb{F})$ is talking about polynomials with degree that can be higher than $m$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Yes that's the reason. In $P(mathbb{F})$ the degree is unbounded. You have polynomials of all degrees.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Dec 29 '18 at 22:51








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    I love when people answer their own question in the question itself :)
    $endgroup$
    – James Groon
    Dec 29 '18 at 22:52














0












0








0





$begingroup$


In the book Linear Algebra Done Right, example 2.14 said that $P_m(mathbb{F})$ is a finite-dimensional vector space for each non-negative integer $m$.



$P_m(mathbb{F})$ is defined as "For $m$ a nonnegative integer, $P_m(mathbb{F})$ denotes the set of all polynomials with coefficients in $mathbb{F}$ and degree at most $m$"



Then in example 2.16, it showed that $P(mathbb{F})$ is infinite-dimensional.



Consider any list of elements of $P(mathbb{F})$. Let $m$ denote the highest degree of the polynomials inn the list. Then every polynomial in the span of this list has degree at most $m$. Thus $z^{m+1}$ is not in the span of our list. Hence no list spans $P(mathbb{F})$. Thus $P(mathbb{F})$ is infinite dimensional.



I am a bit confused on why $P_m(mathbb{F})$ is finite dimensional, and $P(mathbb{F})$ is infinite dimensional.



Is it because $P_m(mathbb{F})$ is just talking about polynomials with degree at most $m$, while $P(mathbb{F})$ is talking about polynomials with degree that can be higher than $m$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




In the book Linear Algebra Done Right, example 2.14 said that $P_m(mathbb{F})$ is a finite-dimensional vector space for each non-negative integer $m$.



$P_m(mathbb{F})$ is defined as "For $m$ a nonnegative integer, $P_m(mathbb{F})$ denotes the set of all polynomials with coefficients in $mathbb{F}$ and degree at most $m$"



Then in example 2.16, it showed that $P(mathbb{F})$ is infinite-dimensional.



Consider any list of elements of $P(mathbb{F})$. Let $m$ denote the highest degree of the polynomials inn the list. Then every polynomial in the span of this list has degree at most $m$. Thus $z^{m+1}$ is not in the span of our list. Hence no list spans $P(mathbb{F})$. Thus $P(mathbb{F})$ is infinite dimensional.



I am a bit confused on why $P_m(mathbb{F})$ is finite dimensional, and $P(mathbb{F})$ is infinite dimensional.



Is it because $P_m(mathbb{F})$ is just talking about polynomials with degree at most $m$, while $P(mathbb{F})$ is talking about polynomials with degree that can be higher than $m$?







linear-algebra






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asked Dec 29 '18 at 22:46









JOHN JOHN

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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Yes that's the reason. In $P(mathbb{F})$ the degree is unbounded. You have polynomials of all degrees.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Dec 29 '18 at 22:51








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    I love when people answer their own question in the question itself :)
    $endgroup$
    – James Groon
    Dec 29 '18 at 22:52














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Yes that's the reason. In $P(mathbb{F})$ the degree is unbounded. You have polynomials of all degrees.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Dec 29 '18 at 22:51








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    I love when people answer their own question in the question itself :)
    $endgroup$
    – James Groon
    Dec 29 '18 at 22:52








2




2




$begingroup$
Yes that's the reason. In $P(mathbb{F})$ the degree is unbounded. You have polynomials of all degrees.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Dec 29 '18 at 22:51






$begingroup$
Yes that's the reason. In $P(mathbb{F})$ the degree is unbounded. You have polynomials of all degrees.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Dec 29 '18 at 22:51






3




3




$begingroup$
I love when people answer their own question in the question itself :)
$endgroup$
– James Groon
Dec 29 '18 at 22:52




$begingroup$
I love when people answer their own question in the question itself :)
$endgroup$
– James Groon
Dec 29 '18 at 22:52










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