Relating the Nonlinear and Linear operators in the Homotopy Analysis Method












1












$begingroup$


The question refers to chapter two of the book Liao, Shijun. Homotopy analysis method in nonlinear differential equations. Beijing: Higher Education Press, 2012.



Link to book pdf from Chinese .edu site (presumably author related).



In section 2.3.2 of the book the homotopy analysis is being applied to a simple nonlinear differential equation.



Assume a differential equation of the form:



$$mathcal{N}(x)=gamma x^{''}+lambda
x+varepsilon x^3=0 tag{2.35}label{eq235}$$



where $mathcal{N}$ is the specified nonlinear operator based on $lambda$ and $varepsilon$. Assume $x_0in S_p$ is an initial guess for the true value of $x$ that solves the differential equation and is contained in some periodic function $S_p$ that also contains the true value of $x$. The book then notes that $mathcal{N}(x)in S_p$ also.



Next it creates an auxiliary linear operator $mathcal{L}$ with the property of
$mathcal{L}(0)=0$ and assumes that $mathcal{L}$ is chosen such that $mathcal{L}[x-x_0]in S_p$. It then states that the linear and nonlinear operators have the same period and can therefore be deformed into each other before creating the following homotopy:



$$mathcal{H}(x:q):=(1-q)mathcal{L}[x-x_0]-mathcal{N}(x) tag{2.37}label{eq237}$$



This appears to me that the homotopy is being created between the linear and nonlinear operators to convert the nonlinear problem into a linear one. Why does this work when the linear and nonlinear operators are different, and in fact the linear operator is somewhat arbitrary? This appears different to me than the example below where a nonlinear equation is solved. The book just performs the steps but does not explain the why or how of the transition.



The basic explanation of Homotopy applied to nonlinear equations is below:



Considering a nonlinear equation $f(x)=0$ with $xin[a,b]$
Assume that $x_0$ is an initial guess for the value of $x$ that solves the nonlinear equation.



$f(x)-f(x_0)$ is also continuous on $xin[a,b]$ and can thus be deformed to $f(x)$



A homotopy can then be constructed:



$$mathscr{H}(x:q)=left( 1-q right) left[f(x)-f(x_0)right]+qf(x)=0$$



If $x$ is replaced by homotopy $tilde{x}(q)$ where $tilde{x}(q)=(1-q)x_0+qx$
and $tilde{x}(q)$ is assumed to be analytic at $q=0$. Then the original homotopy becomes:



$mathscr{H}(tilde{x}(q):q)=(1-q)[f(tilde{x}(q))-f(x_0)]+qf(tilde{x}(q))=0 tag{2.10}label{eq210}$



Based on assuming that $tilde{x}$ is analytic at $q=0$ you assume that a Maclaurin series of $tilde{x}$ using the variable $q$ will converge.



$$tilde{x}(q)sim x_0+sum_{k=1}^{infty}{x_kq^k}tag{2.11}label{eq211}$$



$$x_n=frac{1}{k!}frac{mathcal{d}^kx}{mathcal{d}q^k}|_{q=0}=frac{1}{k!}mathcal{D}_k[tilde{x}(q)]
tag{2.12}label{eq212}$$



Where $mathcal{D}_k$ is the Homotopy derivative of order $k$. and can be obtained by taking the $k^{th}$ derivative of Eq. $(2.10)$ and setting $q=0$



For example:



$$frac{partial}{partial q} left{ left(1-qright)left[f(tilde{x}(q))-f(x_0)right]+qf(x_0)=0right} tag{2.15}label{eq215}$$



$$f^{'}(x_0) frac{partialtilde{x}}{partial q}|_{q=0}=-f(x_0) $$



$$x_1=mathcal{D}_1=-frac{f(x_0)}{f^{'}(x_0)}$$



Then set q=1 and approximate the true solution of $f(x)=0$ as:



$$xapprox x_0+x_1+x+2+...=x_0-frac{f(x_0)}{f^{'}(x_0)}-frac{[f(x_0)]^2f^{''}(x_0)}{2[f^{'}(x_0)]^3}+... tag{2.18}label{eq218}$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The point is that $x_0$ is a solution of ${cal L}[x]={cal L}[x_0]$, the linear equation is not homogeneous. // In the given equation there is a lower bound for the period, and the period depends on the level of the energy function that the solution lives in. The level set and thus the solution are determined by the period. Is that mentioned in the book?
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 16 at 0:19










  • $begingroup$
    The book does not discuss energy until chapter 9 and it is in a different context. I am not sure what you mean by saying that $x_0$ is a solution to the linear operator.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 16 at 2:10










  • $begingroup$
    If you insert $x=x_0$, both sides are the same, the equation is true. This is independent of what linear operator you take. But I think the intended linear operator is the first two terms of the given equation, ${cal L}[x]=γx''+λx$.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 16 at 7:32












  • $begingroup$
    So how does it equate with the nonlinear operator? Or how can they be sure they can map from the nonlinear to linear (or the reverse)?
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 16 at 17:30
















1












$begingroup$


The question refers to chapter two of the book Liao, Shijun. Homotopy analysis method in nonlinear differential equations. Beijing: Higher Education Press, 2012.



Link to book pdf from Chinese .edu site (presumably author related).



In section 2.3.2 of the book the homotopy analysis is being applied to a simple nonlinear differential equation.



Assume a differential equation of the form:



$$mathcal{N}(x)=gamma x^{''}+lambda
x+varepsilon x^3=0 tag{2.35}label{eq235}$$



where $mathcal{N}$ is the specified nonlinear operator based on $lambda$ and $varepsilon$. Assume $x_0in S_p$ is an initial guess for the true value of $x$ that solves the differential equation and is contained in some periodic function $S_p$ that also contains the true value of $x$. The book then notes that $mathcal{N}(x)in S_p$ also.



Next it creates an auxiliary linear operator $mathcal{L}$ with the property of
$mathcal{L}(0)=0$ and assumes that $mathcal{L}$ is chosen such that $mathcal{L}[x-x_0]in S_p$. It then states that the linear and nonlinear operators have the same period and can therefore be deformed into each other before creating the following homotopy:



$$mathcal{H}(x:q):=(1-q)mathcal{L}[x-x_0]-mathcal{N}(x) tag{2.37}label{eq237}$$



This appears to me that the homotopy is being created between the linear and nonlinear operators to convert the nonlinear problem into a linear one. Why does this work when the linear and nonlinear operators are different, and in fact the linear operator is somewhat arbitrary? This appears different to me than the example below where a nonlinear equation is solved. The book just performs the steps but does not explain the why or how of the transition.



The basic explanation of Homotopy applied to nonlinear equations is below:



Considering a nonlinear equation $f(x)=0$ with $xin[a,b]$
Assume that $x_0$ is an initial guess for the value of $x$ that solves the nonlinear equation.



$f(x)-f(x_0)$ is also continuous on $xin[a,b]$ and can thus be deformed to $f(x)$



A homotopy can then be constructed:



$$mathscr{H}(x:q)=left( 1-q right) left[f(x)-f(x_0)right]+qf(x)=0$$



If $x$ is replaced by homotopy $tilde{x}(q)$ where $tilde{x}(q)=(1-q)x_0+qx$
and $tilde{x}(q)$ is assumed to be analytic at $q=0$. Then the original homotopy becomes:



$mathscr{H}(tilde{x}(q):q)=(1-q)[f(tilde{x}(q))-f(x_0)]+qf(tilde{x}(q))=0 tag{2.10}label{eq210}$



Based on assuming that $tilde{x}$ is analytic at $q=0$ you assume that a Maclaurin series of $tilde{x}$ using the variable $q$ will converge.



$$tilde{x}(q)sim x_0+sum_{k=1}^{infty}{x_kq^k}tag{2.11}label{eq211}$$



$$x_n=frac{1}{k!}frac{mathcal{d}^kx}{mathcal{d}q^k}|_{q=0}=frac{1}{k!}mathcal{D}_k[tilde{x}(q)]
tag{2.12}label{eq212}$$



Where $mathcal{D}_k$ is the Homotopy derivative of order $k$. and can be obtained by taking the $k^{th}$ derivative of Eq. $(2.10)$ and setting $q=0$



For example:



$$frac{partial}{partial q} left{ left(1-qright)left[f(tilde{x}(q))-f(x_0)right]+qf(x_0)=0right} tag{2.15}label{eq215}$$



$$f^{'}(x_0) frac{partialtilde{x}}{partial q}|_{q=0}=-f(x_0) $$



$$x_1=mathcal{D}_1=-frac{f(x_0)}{f^{'}(x_0)}$$



Then set q=1 and approximate the true solution of $f(x)=0$ as:



$$xapprox x_0+x_1+x+2+...=x_0-frac{f(x_0)}{f^{'}(x_0)}-frac{[f(x_0)]^2f^{''}(x_0)}{2[f^{'}(x_0)]^3}+... tag{2.18}label{eq218}$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The point is that $x_0$ is a solution of ${cal L}[x]={cal L}[x_0]$, the linear equation is not homogeneous. // In the given equation there is a lower bound for the period, and the period depends on the level of the energy function that the solution lives in. The level set and thus the solution are determined by the period. Is that mentioned in the book?
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 16 at 0:19










  • $begingroup$
    The book does not discuss energy until chapter 9 and it is in a different context. I am not sure what you mean by saying that $x_0$ is a solution to the linear operator.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 16 at 2:10










  • $begingroup$
    If you insert $x=x_0$, both sides are the same, the equation is true. This is independent of what linear operator you take. But I think the intended linear operator is the first two terms of the given equation, ${cal L}[x]=γx''+λx$.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 16 at 7:32












  • $begingroup$
    So how does it equate with the nonlinear operator? Or how can they be sure they can map from the nonlinear to linear (or the reverse)?
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 16 at 17:30














1












1








1


2



$begingroup$


The question refers to chapter two of the book Liao, Shijun. Homotopy analysis method in nonlinear differential equations. Beijing: Higher Education Press, 2012.



Link to book pdf from Chinese .edu site (presumably author related).



In section 2.3.2 of the book the homotopy analysis is being applied to a simple nonlinear differential equation.



Assume a differential equation of the form:



$$mathcal{N}(x)=gamma x^{''}+lambda
x+varepsilon x^3=0 tag{2.35}label{eq235}$$



where $mathcal{N}$ is the specified nonlinear operator based on $lambda$ and $varepsilon$. Assume $x_0in S_p$ is an initial guess for the true value of $x$ that solves the differential equation and is contained in some periodic function $S_p$ that also contains the true value of $x$. The book then notes that $mathcal{N}(x)in S_p$ also.



Next it creates an auxiliary linear operator $mathcal{L}$ with the property of
$mathcal{L}(0)=0$ and assumes that $mathcal{L}$ is chosen such that $mathcal{L}[x-x_0]in S_p$. It then states that the linear and nonlinear operators have the same period and can therefore be deformed into each other before creating the following homotopy:



$$mathcal{H}(x:q):=(1-q)mathcal{L}[x-x_0]-mathcal{N}(x) tag{2.37}label{eq237}$$



This appears to me that the homotopy is being created between the linear and nonlinear operators to convert the nonlinear problem into a linear one. Why does this work when the linear and nonlinear operators are different, and in fact the linear operator is somewhat arbitrary? This appears different to me than the example below where a nonlinear equation is solved. The book just performs the steps but does not explain the why or how of the transition.



The basic explanation of Homotopy applied to nonlinear equations is below:



Considering a nonlinear equation $f(x)=0$ with $xin[a,b]$
Assume that $x_0$ is an initial guess for the value of $x$ that solves the nonlinear equation.



$f(x)-f(x_0)$ is also continuous on $xin[a,b]$ and can thus be deformed to $f(x)$



A homotopy can then be constructed:



$$mathscr{H}(x:q)=left( 1-q right) left[f(x)-f(x_0)right]+qf(x)=0$$



If $x$ is replaced by homotopy $tilde{x}(q)$ where $tilde{x}(q)=(1-q)x_0+qx$
and $tilde{x}(q)$ is assumed to be analytic at $q=0$. Then the original homotopy becomes:



$mathscr{H}(tilde{x}(q):q)=(1-q)[f(tilde{x}(q))-f(x_0)]+qf(tilde{x}(q))=0 tag{2.10}label{eq210}$



Based on assuming that $tilde{x}$ is analytic at $q=0$ you assume that a Maclaurin series of $tilde{x}$ using the variable $q$ will converge.



$$tilde{x}(q)sim x_0+sum_{k=1}^{infty}{x_kq^k}tag{2.11}label{eq211}$$



$$x_n=frac{1}{k!}frac{mathcal{d}^kx}{mathcal{d}q^k}|_{q=0}=frac{1}{k!}mathcal{D}_k[tilde{x}(q)]
tag{2.12}label{eq212}$$



Where $mathcal{D}_k$ is the Homotopy derivative of order $k$. and can be obtained by taking the $k^{th}$ derivative of Eq. $(2.10)$ and setting $q=0$



For example:



$$frac{partial}{partial q} left{ left(1-qright)left[f(tilde{x}(q))-f(x_0)right]+qf(x_0)=0right} tag{2.15}label{eq215}$$



$$f^{'}(x_0) frac{partialtilde{x}}{partial q}|_{q=0}=-f(x_0) $$



$$x_1=mathcal{D}_1=-frac{f(x_0)}{f^{'}(x_0)}$$



Then set q=1 and approximate the true solution of $f(x)=0$ as:



$$xapprox x_0+x_1+x+2+...=x_0-frac{f(x_0)}{f^{'}(x_0)}-frac{[f(x_0)]^2f^{''}(x_0)}{2[f^{'}(x_0)]^3}+... tag{2.18}label{eq218}$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




The question refers to chapter two of the book Liao, Shijun. Homotopy analysis method in nonlinear differential equations. Beijing: Higher Education Press, 2012.



Link to book pdf from Chinese .edu site (presumably author related).



In section 2.3.2 of the book the homotopy analysis is being applied to a simple nonlinear differential equation.



Assume a differential equation of the form:



$$mathcal{N}(x)=gamma x^{''}+lambda
x+varepsilon x^3=0 tag{2.35}label{eq235}$$



where $mathcal{N}$ is the specified nonlinear operator based on $lambda$ and $varepsilon$. Assume $x_0in S_p$ is an initial guess for the true value of $x$ that solves the differential equation and is contained in some periodic function $S_p$ that also contains the true value of $x$. The book then notes that $mathcal{N}(x)in S_p$ also.



Next it creates an auxiliary linear operator $mathcal{L}$ with the property of
$mathcal{L}(0)=0$ and assumes that $mathcal{L}$ is chosen such that $mathcal{L}[x-x_0]in S_p$. It then states that the linear and nonlinear operators have the same period and can therefore be deformed into each other before creating the following homotopy:



$$mathcal{H}(x:q):=(1-q)mathcal{L}[x-x_0]-mathcal{N}(x) tag{2.37}label{eq237}$$



This appears to me that the homotopy is being created between the linear and nonlinear operators to convert the nonlinear problem into a linear one. Why does this work when the linear and nonlinear operators are different, and in fact the linear operator is somewhat arbitrary? This appears different to me than the example below where a nonlinear equation is solved. The book just performs the steps but does not explain the why or how of the transition.



The basic explanation of Homotopy applied to nonlinear equations is below:



Considering a nonlinear equation $f(x)=0$ with $xin[a,b]$
Assume that $x_0$ is an initial guess for the value of $x$ that solves the nonlinear equation.



$f(x)-f(x_0)$ is also continuous on $xin[a,b]$ and can thus be deformed to $f(x)$



A homotopy can then be constructed:



$$mathscr{H}(x:q)=left( 1-q right) left[f(x)-f(x_0)right]+qf(x)=0$$



If $x$ is replaced by homotopy $tilde{x}(q)$ where $tilde{x}(q)=(1-q)x_0+qx$
and $tilde{x}(q)$ is assumed to be analytic at $q=0$. Then the original homotopy becomes:



$mathscr{H}(tilde{x}(q):q)=(1-q)[f(tilde{x}(q))-f(x_0)]+qf(tilde{x}(q))=0 tag{2.10}label{eq210}$



Based on assuming that $tilde{x}$ is analytic at $q=0$ you assume that a Maclaurin series of $tilde{x}$ using the variable $q$ will converge.



$$tilde{x}(q)sim x_0+sum_{k=1}^{infty}{x_kq^k}tag{2.11}label{eq211}$$



$$x_n=frac{1}{k!}frac{mathcal{d}^kx}{mathcal{d}q^k}|_{q=0}=frac{1}{k!}mathcal{D}_k[tilde{x}(q)]
tag{2.12}label{eq212}$$



Where $mathcal{D}_k$ is the Homotopy derivative of order $k$. and can be obtained by taking the $k^{th}$ derivative of Eq. $(2.10)$ and setting $q=0$



For example:



$$frac{partial}{partial q} left{ left(1-qright)left[f(tilde{x}(q))-f(x_0)right]+qf(x_0)=0right} tag{2.15}label{eq215}$$



$$f^{'}(x_0) frac{partialtilde{x}}{partial q}|_{q=0}=-f(x_0) $$



$$x_1=mathcal{D}_1=-frac{f(x_0)}{f^{'}(x_0)}$$



Then set q=1 and approximate the true solution of $f(x)=0$ as:



$$xapprox x_0+x_1+x+2+...=x_0-frac{f(x_0)}{f^{'}(x_0)}-frac{[f(x_0)]^2f^{''}(x_0)}{2[f^{'}(x_0)]^3}+... tag{2.18}label{eq218}$$







ordinary-differential-equations taylor-expansion homotopy-theory approximation-theory non-linear-dynamics






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edited Jan 28 at 3:32







N. Morgan

















asked Jan 15 at 23:18









N. MorganN. Morgan

208




208












  • $begingroup$
    The point is that $x_0$ is a solution of ${cal L}[x]={cal L}[x_0]$, the linear equation is not homogeneous. // In the given equation there is a lower bound for the period, and the period depends on the level of the energy function that the solution lives in. The level set and thus the solution are determined by the period. Is that mentioned in the book?
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 16 at 0:19










  • $begingroup$
    The book does not discuss energy until chapter 9 and it is in a different context. I am not sure what you mean by saying that $x_0$ is a solution to the linear operator.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 16 at 2:10










  • $begingroup$
    If you insert $x=x_0$, both sides are the same, the equation is true. This is independent of what linear operator you take. But I think the intended linear operator is the first two terms of the given equation, ${cal L}[x]=γx''+λx$.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 16 at 7:32












  • $begingroup$
    So how does it equate with the nonlinear operator? Or how can they be sure they can map from the nonlinear to linear (or the reverse)?
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 16 at 17:30


















  • $begingroup$
    The point is that $x_0$ is a solution of ${cal L}[x]={cal L}[x_0]$, the linear equation is not homogeneous. // In the given equation there is a lower bound for the period, and the period depends on the level of the energy function that the solution lives in. The level set and thus the solution are determined by the period. Is that mentioned in the book?
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 16 at 0:19










  • $begingroup$
    The book does not discuss energy until chapter 9 and it is in a different context. I am not sure what you mean by saying that $x_0$ is a solution to the linear operator.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 16 at 2:10










  • $begingroup$
    If you insert $x=x_0$, both sides are the same, the equation is true. This is independent of what linear operator you take. But I think the intended linear operator is the first two terms of the given equation, ${cal L}[x]=γx''+λx$.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 16 at 7:32












  • $begingroup$
    So how does it equate with the nonlinear operator? Or how can they be sure they can map from the nonlinear to linear (or the reverse)?
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 16 at 17:30
















$begingroup$
The point is that $x_0$ is a solution of ${cal L}[x]={cal L}[x_0]$, the linear equation is not homogeneous. // In the given equation there is a lower bound for the period, and the period depends on the level of the energy function that the solution lives in. The level set and thus the solution are determined by the period. Is that mentioned in the book?
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Jan 16 at 0:19




$begingroup$
The point is that $x_0$ is a solution of ${cal L}[x]={cal L}[x_0]$, the linear equation is not homogeneous. // In the given equation there is a lower bound for the period, and the period depends on the level of the energy function that the solution lives in. The level set and thus the solution are determined by the period. Is that mentioned in the book?
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Jan 16 at 0:19












$begingroup$
The book does not discuss energy until chapter 9 and it is in a different context. I am not sure what you mean by saying that $x_0$ is a solution to the linear operator.
$endgroup$
– N. Morgan
Jan 16 at 2:10




$begingroup$
The book does not discuss energy until chapter 9 and it is in a different context. I am not sure what you mean by saying that $x_0$ is a solution to the linear operator.
$endgroup$
– N. Morgan
Jan 16 at 2:10












$begingroup$
If you insert $x=x_0$, both sides are the same, the equation is true. This is independent of what linear operator you take. But I think the intended linear operator is the first two terms of the given equation, ${cal L}[x]=γx''+λx$.
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Jan 16 at 7:32






$begingroup$
If you insert $x=x_0$, both sides are the same, the equation is true. This is independent of what linear operator you take. But I think the intended linear operator is the first two terms of the given equation, ${cal L}[x]=γx''+λx$.
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Jan 16 at 7:32














$begingroup$
So how does it equate with the nonlinear operator? Or how can they be sure they can map from the nonlinear to linear (or the reverse)?
$endgroup$
– N. Morgan
Jan 16 at 17:30




$begingroup$
So how does it equate with the nonlinear operator? Or how can they be sure they can map from the nonlinear to linear (or the reverse)?
$endgroup$
– N. Morgan
Jan 16 at 17:30










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

With the choice ${cal L}[x]=γx''+λx$ you get the homotopy equation
$$
0={cal H}_q[x]=γx''+λx+qεx^3-(1-q)(γx_0''+λx_0).
$$

Set $x_0=Rsin(frac{2pi}{P}t)$ for a $P$ periodic function. But what amplitude $R$ to choose?



To get an initially sensible amplitude consider an infinitesimal parameter $qgtrapprox0$ and look for a solution in the form $x=x_0+qx_1+...$. The demand here is that $x_1$ is of a normal size. Inserting the perturbation series we get as equation for $x_1$
$$
γx_1''+λx_1=-(γx_0''+λx_0+εx_0^3)
=γω^2Rcos(ωt)-λRcos(ωt)-εfrac{R^3}4[cos(3ωt)+3cos(ωt)]
$$

To conclude the task of finding $R$, demand that the amplitude and phase of the base frequency $ω=frac{2pi}P$ remains unchanged, that is, the contributions of this frequency to the forcing term add to zero, so that
$$
0=γω^2-λ-εfrac{3R^2}4implies R=sqrt{frac{4(γω^2-λ)}{3ε}}.
$$

This of course assumes that $λ<γω^2$ or $λP^2<4pi^2γ$.



Now go from solution to solution, for instance using multiple shooting where the last iterate is the initial guess for the solver in the next step.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Actually the book says that $mathcal{L}(x)=gamma x^{''}+lambda x$ does not work as an appropriate linear operator because if you perform a perturbation expansion with $varepsilon$ as a small parameter to obtain an approximation of the original nonlinear system. The perturbation approximation does not have periodic behavior when $lambda <0$ and $varepsilon>0$.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 26 at 1:42










  • $begingroup$
    It concludes that $mathcal{L}[x]=x''+x$ is the appropriate linear operator with the property $mathcal(L)[C_1 cos tau + C_2 sin tau ]=0$ where $C_1=-chi_n x_{n-1}(0)-x^s_n(0)$ and $C_2=0$. $chi$ is zero for n <=1, 1 for n>1, and $x^s_n$ is a particular soln.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 26 at 1:50












  • $begingroup$
    This makes even less sense. The non-linear operator does not have "a" one period, it has a period range. The linear operator however does have one period. So the equality statement of the period needs some elaboration. The solution you cite has period $2pi$, this need not be a period in the period range of the non-linear operator. With the forcing term, the period of the linear operator is relatively irrelevant, it may have an influence on the numerical method, but we do not know what numerical method is used.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 26 at 6:57










  • $begingroup$
    They converted $omega t$ to $tau$ so the period is related to the frequency in the previous comment. They did also do an additional homotopy on the gamma (and thus on the frequency) to go from $gamma_0$ to $gamma$ (and thus from $omega_0$ to $omega$ true) By the way the book is at link freely available, presumably from the author since it is a Chinese .edu site.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 26 at 10:34












  • $begingroup$
    Ok, that is slightly confusing but understandable in the end. The book forces more-or-less the amplitude $R$ and leaves the frequency more variable than expected after your excerpt. In the answer I went the opposite route, consider the frequency as fixed and adapt the amplitude of the first term. // Sorry, the book is hard to read for me. It hides the essential steps in a wall of repetitive text and trivialities, and at places it comes over as rather self-aggrandizing.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 26 at 11:27












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$begingroup$

With the choice ${cal L}[x]=γx''+λx$ you get the homotopy equation
$$
0={cal H}_q[x]=γx''+λx+qεx^3-(1-q)(γx_0''+λx_0).
$$

Set $x_0=Rsin(frac{2pi}{P}t)$ for a $P$ periodic function. But what amplitude $R$ to choose?



To get an initially sensible amplitude consider an infinitesimal parameter $qgtrapprox0$ and look for a solution in the form $x=x_0+qx_1+...$. The demand here is that $x_1$ is of a normal size. Inserting the perturbation series we get as equation for $x_1$
$$
γx_1''+λx_1=-(γx_0''+λx_0+εx_0^3)
=γω^2Rcos(ωt)-λRcos(ωt)-εfrac{R^3}4[cos(3ωt)+3cos(ωt)]
$$

To conclude the task of finding $R$, demand that the amplitude and phase of the base frequency $ω=frac{2pi}P$ remains unchanged, that is, the contributions of this frequency to the forcing term add to zero, so that
$$
0=γω^2-λ-εfrac{3R^2}4implies R=sqrt{frac{4(γω^2-λ)}{3ε}}.
$$

This of course assumes that $λ<γω^2$ or $λP^2<4pi^2γ$.



Now go from solution to solution, for instance using multiple shooting where the last iterate is the initial guess for the solver in the next step.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Actually the book says that $mathcal{L}(x)=gamma x^{''}+lambda x$ does not work as an appropriate linear operator because if you perform a perturbation expansion with $varepsilon$ as a small parameter to obtain an approximation of the original nonlinear system. The perturbation approximation does not have periodic behavior when $lambda <0$ and $varepsilon>0$.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 26 at 1:42










  • $begingroup$
    It concludes that $mathcal{L}[x]=x''+x$ is the appropriate linear operator with the property $mathcal(L)[C_1 cos tau + C_2 sin tau ]=0$ where $C_1=-chi_n x_{n-1}(0)-x^s_n(0)$ and $C_2=0$. $chi$ is zero for n <=1, 1 for n>1, and $x^s_n$ is a particular soln.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 26 at 1:50












  • $begingroup$
    This makes even less sense. The non-linear operator does not have "a" one period, it has a period range. The linear operator however does have one period. So the equality statement of the period needs some elaboration. The solution you cite has period $2pi$, this need not be a period in the period range of the non-linear operator. With the forcing term, the period of the linear operator is relatively irrelevant, it may have an influence on the numerical method, but we do not know what numerical method is used.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 26 at 6:57










  • $begingroup$
    They converted $omega t$ to $tau$ so the period is related to the frequency in the previous comment. They did also do an additional homotopy on the gamma (and thus on the frequency) to go from $gamma_0$ to $gamma$ (and thus from $omega_0$ to $omega$ true) By the way the book is at link freely available, presumably from the author since it is a Chinese .edu site.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 26 at 10:34












  • $begingroup$
    Ok, that is slightly confusing but understandable in the end. The book forces more-or-less the amplitude $R$ and leaves the frequency more variable than expected after your excerpt. In the answer I went the opposite route, consider the frequency as fixed and adapt the amplitude of the first term. // Sorry, the book is hard to read for me. It hides the essential steps in a wall of repetitive text and trivialities, and at places it comes over as rather self-aggrandizing.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 26 at 11:27
















0












$begingroup$

With the choice ${cal L}[x]=γx''+λx$ you get the homotopy equation
$$
0={cal H}_q[x]=γx''+λx+qεx^3-(1-q)(γx_0''+λx_0).
$$

Set $x_0=Rsin(frac{2pi}{P}t)$ for a $P$ periodic function. But what amplitude $R$ to choose?



To get an initially sensible amplitude consider an infinitesimal parameter $qgtrapprox0$ and look for a solution in the form $x=x_0+qx_1+...$. The demand here is that $x_1$ is of a normal size. Inserting the perturbation series we get as equation for $x_1$
$$
γx_1''+λx_1=-(γx_0''+λx_0+εx_0^3)
=γω^2Rcos(ωt)-λRcos(ωt)-εfrac{R^3}4[cos(3ωt)+3cos(ωt)]
$$

To conclude the task of finding $R$, demand that the amplitude and phase of the base frequency $ω=frac{2pi}P$ remains unchanged, that is, the contributions of this frequency to the forcing term add to zero, so that
$$
0=γω^2-λ-εfrac{3R^2}4implies R=sqrt{frac{4(γω^2-λ)}{3ε}}.
$$

This of course assumes that $λ<γω^2$ or $λP^2<4pi^2γ$.



Now go from solution to solution, for instance using multiple shooting where the last iterate is the initial guess for the solver in the next step.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Actually the book says that $mathcal{L}(x)=gamma x^{''}+lambda x$ does not work as an appropriate linear operator because if you perform a perturbation expansion with $varepsilon$ as a small parameter to obtain an approximation of the original nonlinear system. The perturbation approximation does not have periodic behavior when $lambda <0$ and $varepsilon>0$.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 26 at 1:42










  • $begingroup$
    It concludes that $mathcal{L}[x]=x''+x$ is the appropriate linear operator with the property $mathcal(L)[C_1 cos tau + C_2 sin tau ]=0$ where $C_1=-chi_n x_{n-1}(0)-x^s_n(0)$ and $C_2=0$. $chi$ is zero for n <=1, 1 for n>1, and $x^s_n$ is a particular soln.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 26 at 1:50












  • $begingroup$
    This makes even less sense. The non-linear operator does not have "a" one period, it has a period range. The linear operator however does have one period. So the equality statement of the period needs some elaboration. The solution you cite has period $2pi$, this need not be a period in the period range of the non-linear operator. With the forcing term, the period of the linear operator is relatively irrelevant, it may have an influence on the numerical method, but we do not know what numerical method is used.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 26 at 6:57










  • $begingroup$
    They converted $omega t$ to $tau$ so the period is related to the frequency in the previous comment. They did also do an additional homotopy on the gamma (and thus on the frequency) to go from $gamma_0$ to $gamma$ (and thus from $omega_0$ to $omega$ true) By the way the book is at link freely available, presumably from the author since it is a Chinese .edu site.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 26 at 10:34












  • $begingroup$
    Ok, that is slightly confusing but understandable in the end. The book forces more-or-less the amplitude $R$ and leaves the frequency more variable than expected after your excerpt. In the answer I went the opposite route, consider the frequency as fixed and adapt the amplitude of the first term. // Sorry, the book is hard to read for me. It hides the essential steps in a wall of repetitive text and trivialities, and at places it comes over as rather self-aggrandizing.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 26 at 11:27














0












0








0





$begingroup$

With the choice ${cal L}[x]=γx''+λx$ you get the homotopy equation
$$
0={cal H}_q[x]=γx''+λx+qεx^3-(1-q)(γx_0''+λx_0).
$$

Set $x_0=Rsin(frac{2pi}{P}t)$ for a $P$ periodic function. But what amplitude $R$ to choose?



To get an initially sensible amplitude consider an infinitesimal parameter $qgtrapprox0$ and look for a solution in the form $x=x_0+qx_1+...$. The demand here is that $x_1$ is of a normal size. Inserting the perturbation series we get as equation for $x_1$
$$
γx_1''+λx_1=-(γx_0''+λx_0+εx_0^3)
=γω^2Rcos(ωt)-λRcos(ωt)-εfrac{R^3}4[cos(3ωt)+3cos(ωt)]
$$

To conclude the task of finding $R$, demand that the amplitude and phase of the base frequency $ω=frac{2pi}P$ remains unchanged, that is, the contributions of this frequency to the forcing term add to zero, so that
$$
0=γω^2-λ-εfrac{3R^2}4implies R=sqrt{frac{4(γω^2-λ)}{3ε}}.
$$

This of course assumes that $λ<γω^2$ or $λP^2<4pi^2γ$.



Now go from solution to solution, for instance using multiple shooting where the last iterate is the initial guess for the solver in the next step.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



With the choice ${cal L}[x]=γx''+λx$ you get the homotopy equation
$$
0={cal H}_q[x]=γx''+λx+qεx^3-(1-q)(γx_0''+λx_0).
$$

Set $x_0=Rsin(frac{2pi}{P}t)$ for a $P$ periodic function. But what amplitude $R$ to choose?



To get an initially sensible amplitude consider an infinitesimal parameter $qgtrapprox0$ and look for a solution in the form $x=x_0+qx_1+...$. The demand here is that $x_1$ is of a normal size. Inserting the perturbation series we get as equation for $x_1$
$$
γx_1''+λx_1=-(γx_0''+λx_0+εx_0^3)
=γω^2Rcos(ωt)-λRcos(ωt)-εfrac{R^3}4[cos(3ωt)+3cos(ωt)]
$$

To conclude the task of finding $R$, demand that the amplitude and phase of the base frequency $ω=frac{2pi}P$ remains unchanged, that is, the contributions of this frequency to the forcing term add to zero, so that
$$
0=γω^2-λ-εfrac{3R^2}4implies R=sqrt{frac{4(γω^2-λ)}{3ε}}.
$$

This of course assumes that $λ<γω^2$ or $λP^2<4pi^2γ$.



Now go from solution to solution, for instance using multiple shooting where the last iterate is the initial guess for the solver in the next step.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 16 at 18:12









LutzLLutzL

61.1k42157




61.1k42157












  • $begingroup$
    Actually the book says that $mathcal{L}(x)=gamma x^{''}+lambda x$ does not work as an appropriate linear operator because if you perform a perturbation expansion with $varepsilon$ as a small parameter to obtain an approximation of the original nonlinear system. The perturbation approximation does not have periodic behavior when $lambda <0$ and $varepsilon>0$.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 26 at 1:42










  • $begingroup$
    It concludes that $mathcal{L}[x]=x''+x$ is the appropriate linear operator with the property $mathcal(L)[C_1 cos tau + C_2 sin tau ]=0$ where $C_1=-chi_n x_{n-1}(0)-x^s_n(0)$ and $C_2=0$. $chi$ is zero for n <=1, 1 for n>1, and $x^s_n$ is a particular soln.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 26 at 1:50












  • $begingroup$
    This makes even less sense. The non-linear operator does not have "a" one period, it has a period range. The linear operator however does have one period. So the equality statement of the period needs some elaboration. The solution you cite has period $2pi$, this need not be a period in the period range of the non-linear operator. With the forcing term, the period of the linear operator is relatively irrelevant, it may have an influence on the numerical method, but we do not know what numerical method is used.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 26 at 6:57










  • $begingroup$
    They converted $omega t$ to $tau$ so the period is related to the frequency in the previous comment. They did also do an additional homotopy on the gamma (and thus on the frequency) to go from $gamma_0$ to $gamma$ (and thus from $omega_0$ to $omega$ true) By the way the book is at link freely available, presumably from the author since it is a Chinese .edu site.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 26 at 10:34












  • $begingroup$
    Ok, that is slightly confusing but understandable in the end. The book forces more-or-less the amplitude $R$ and leaves the frequency more variable than expected after your excerpt. In the answer I went the opposite route, consider the frequency as fixed and adapt the amplitude of the first term. // Sorry, the book is hard to read for me. It hides the essential steps in a wall of repetitive text and trivialities, and at places it comes over as rather self-aggrandizing.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 26 at 11:27


















  • $begingroup$
    Actually the book says that $mathcal{L}(x)=gamma x^{''}+lambda x$ does not work as an appropriate linear operator because if you perform a perturbation expansion with $varepsilon$ as a small parameter to obtain an approximation of the original nonlinear system. The perturbation approximation does not have periodic behavior when $lambda <0$ and $varepsilon>0$.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 26 at 1:42










  • $begingroup$
    It concludes that $mathcal{L}[x]=x''+x$ is the appropriate linear operator with the property $mathcal(L)[C_1 cos tau + C_2 sin tau ]=0$ where $C_1=-chi_n x_{n-1}(0)-x^s_n(0)$ and $C_2=0$. $chi$ is zero for n <=1, 1 for n>1, and $x^s_n$ is a particular soln.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 26 at 1:50












  • $begingroup$
    This makes even less sense. The non-linear operator does not have "a" one period, it has a period range. The linear operator however does have one period. So the equality statement of the period needs some elaboration. The solution you cite has period $2pi$, this need not be a period in the period range of the non-linear operator. With the forcing term, the period of the linear operator is relatively irrelevant, it may have an influence on the numerical method, but we do not know what numerical method is used.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 26 at 6:57










  • $begingroup$
    They converted $omega t$ to $tau$ so the period is related to the frequency in the previous comment. They did also do an additional homotopy on the gamma (and thus on the frequency) to go from $gamma_0$ to $gamma$ (and thus from $omega_0$ to $omega$ true) By the way the book is at link freely available, presumably from the author since it is a Chinese .edu site.
    $endgroup$
    – N. Morgan
    Jan 26 at 10:34












  • $begingroup$
    Ok, that is slightly confusing but understandable in the end. The book forces more-or-less the amplitude $R$ and leaves the frequency more variable than expected after your excerpt. In the answer I went the opposite route, consider the frequency as fixed and adapt the amplitude of the first term. // Sorry, the book is hard to read for me. It hides the essential steps in a wall of repetitive text and trivialities, and at places it comes over as rather self-aggrandizing.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 26 at 11:27
















$begingroup$
Actually the book says that $mathcal{L}(x)=gamma x^{''}+lambda x$ does not work as an appropriate linear operator because if you perform a perturbation expansion with $varepsilon$ as a small parameter to obtain an approximation of the original nonlinear system. The perturbation approximation does not have periodic behavior when $lambda <0$ and $varepsilon>0$.
$endgroup$
– N. Morgan
Jan 26 at 1:42




$begingroup$
Actually the book says that $mathcal{L}(x)=gamma x^{''}+lambda x$ does not work as an appropriate linear operator because if you perform a perturbation expansion with $varepsilon$ as a small parameter to obtain an approximation of the original nonlinear system. The perturbation approximation does not have periodic behavior when $lambda <0$ and $varepsilon>0$.
$endgroup$
– N. Morgan
Jan 26 at 1:42












$begingroup$
It concludes that $mathcal{L}[x]=x''+x$ is the appropriate linear operator with the property $mathcal(L)[C_1 cos tau + C_2 sin tau ]=0$ where $C_1=-chi_n x_{n-1}(0)-x^s_n(0)$ and $C_2=0$. $chi$ is zero for n <=1, 1 for n>1, and $x^s_n$ is a particular soln.
$endgroup$
– N. Morgan
Jan 26 at 1:50






$begingroup$
It concludes that $mathcal{L}[x]=x''+x$ is the appropriate linear operator with the property $mathcal(L)[C_1 cos tau + C_2 sin tau ]=0$ where $C_1=-chi_n x_{n-1}(0)-x^s_n(0)$ and $C_2=0$. $chi$ is zero for n <=1, 1 for n>1, and $x^s_n$ is a particular soln.
$endgroup$
– N. Morgan
Jan 26 at 1:50














$begingroup$
This makes even less sense. The non-linear operator does not have "a" one period, it has a period range. The linear operator however does have one period. So the equality statement of the period needs some elaboration. The solution you cite has period $2pi$, this need not be a period in the period range of the non-linear operator. With the forcing term, the period of the linear operator is relatively irrelevant, it may have an influence on the numerical method, but we do not know what numerical method is used.
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Jan 26 at 6:57




$begingroup$
This makes even less sense. The non-linear operator does not have "a" one period, it has a period range. The linear operator however does have one period. So the equality statement of the period needs some elaboration. The solution you cite has period $2pi$, this need not be a period in the period range of the non-linear operator. With the forcing term, the period of the linear operator is relatively irrelevant, it may have an influence on the numerical method, but we do not know what numerical method is used.
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Jan 26 at 6:57












$begingroup$
They converted $omega t$ to $tau$ so the period is related to the frequency in the previous comment. They did also do an additional homotopy on the gamma (and thus on the frequency) to go from $gamma_0$ to $gamma$ (and thus from $omega_0$ to $omega$ true) By the way the book is at link freely available, presumably from the author since it is a Chinese .edu site.
$endgroup$
– N. Morgan
Jan 26 at 10:34






$begingroup$
They converted $omega t$ to $tau$ so the period is related to the frequency in the previous comment. They did also do an additional homotopy on the gamma (and thus on the frequency) to go from $gamma_0$ to $gamma$ (and thus from $omega_0$ to $omega$ true) By the way the book is at link freely available, presumably from the author since it is a Chinese .edu site.
$endgroup$
– N. Morgan
Jan 26 at 10:34














$begingroup$
Ok, that is slightly confusing but understandable in the end. The book forces more-or-less the amplitude $R$ and leaves the frequency more variable than expected after your excerpt. In the answer I went the opposite route, consider the frequency as fixed and adapt the amplitude of the first term. // Sorry, the book is hard to read for me. It hides the essential steps in a wall of repetitive text and trivialities, and at places it comes over as rather self-aggrandizing.
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Jan 26 at 11:27




$begingroup$
Ok, that is slightly confusing but understandable in the end. The book forces more-or-less the amplitude $R$ and leaves the frequency more variable than expected after your excerpt. In the answer I went the opposite route, consider the frequency as fixed and adapt the amplitude of the first term. // Sorry, the book is hard to read for me. It hides the essential steps in a wall of repetitive text and trivialities, and at places it comes over as rather self-aggrandizing.
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Jan 26 at 11:27


















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