Trouble understanding proof regarding elements of an integral domain which are not product of irreducible...












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I'm having trouble understanding the proof of a proposition regarding elements which are not product of irreducible elements in integral domains. The proposition is the following:



Let $A$ be an integral domain and $ain A$ different of 0 and not a unit. If $a$ is not product of irreducible elements then there exists a sequence ${a_n}_{nin N}$ of elements of $A$ such that $a_{n+1}$ is a proper divisor of $a_n$ for every natural $n$.



The proof that has been given to me is this:



Let's build inductively a sequence with this property. Let $a_0 = a$ and suppose $a_0,dots,a_n$, $ngeq0$ are already built. Since $a_n$ is not a product of irreducibles, it must be composite, thus $a_n = bc$ with $b,c$ proper divisors of $a_n$. Clearly at least one of the two factors must not be a product of irreducibles. We define $a_{n+1}$ as this factor.



The problem I have understanding this proof is that I don't get why not being product of irreducibles implies it is composite. Wouldn't such elements be irreducibles themselves? I mean if it is composite, couldn't we keep decomposing its factors until all of them are irreducible?



Thanks for your help.










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    I'm having trouble understanding the proof of a proposition regarding elements which are not product of irreducible elements in integral domains. The proposition is the following:



    Let $A$ be an integral domain and $ain A$ different of 0 and not a unit. If $a$ is not product of irreducible elements then there exists a sequence ${a_n}_{nin N}$ of elements of $A$ such that $a_{n+1}$ is a proper divisor of $a_n$ for every natural $n$.



    The proof that has been given to me is this:



    Let's build inductively a sequence with this property. Let $a_0 = a$ and suppose $a_0,dots,a_n$, $ngeq0$ are already built. Since $a_n$ is not a product of irreducibles, it must be composite, thus $a_n = bc$ with $b,c$ proper divisors of $a_n$. Clearly at least one of the two factors must not be a product of irreducibles. We define $a_{n+1}$ as this factor.



    The problem I have understanding this proof is that I don't get why not being product of irreducibles implies it is composite. Wouldn't such elements be irreducibles themselves? I mean if it is composite, couldn't we keep decomposing its factors until all of them are irreducible?



    Thanks for your help.










    share|cite|improve this question











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      0








      0





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      I'm having trouble understanding the proof of a proposition regarding elements which are not product of irreducible elements in integral domains. The proposition is the following:



      Let $A$ be an integral domain and $ain A$ different of 0 and not a unit. If $a$ is not product of irreducible elements then there exists a sequence ${a_n}_{nin N}$ of elements of $A$ such that $a_{n+1}$ is a proper divisor of $a_n$ for every natural $n$.



      The proof that has been given to me is this:



      Let's build inductively a sequence with this property. Let $a_0 = a$ and suppose $a_0,dots,a_n$, $ngeq0$ are already built. Since $a_n$ is not a product of irreducibles, it must be composite, thus $a_n = bc$ with $b,c$ proper divisors of $a_n$. Clearly at least one of the two factors must not be a product of irreducibles. We define $a_{n+1}$ as this factor.



      The problem I have understanding this proof is that I don't get why not being product of irreducibles implies it is composite. Wouldn't such elements be irreducibles themselves? I mean if it is composite, couldn't we keep decomposing its factors until all of them are irreducible?



      Thanks for your help.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I'm having trouble understanding the proof of a proposition regarding elements which are not product of irreducible elements in integral domains. The proposition is the following:



      Let $A$ be an integral domain and $ain A$ different of 0 and not a unit. If $a$ is not product of irreducible elements then there exists a sequence ${a_n}_{nin N}$ of elements of $A$ such that $a_{n+1}$ is a proper divisor of $a_n$ for every natural $n$.



      The proof that has been given to me is this:



      Let's build inductively a sequence with this property. Let $a_0 = a$ and suppose $a_0,dots,a_n$, $ngeq0$ are already built. Since $a_n$ is not a product of irreducibles, it must be composite, thus $a_n = bc$ with $b,c$ proper divisors of $a_n$. Clearly at least one of the two factors must not be a product of irreducibles. We define $a_{n+1}$ as this factor.



      The problem I have understanding this proof is that I don't get why not being product of irreducibles implies it is composite. Wouldn't such elements be irreducibles themselves? I mean if it is composite, couldn't we keep decomposing its factors until all of them are irreducible?



      Thanks for your help.







      ring-theory integral-domain unique-factorization-domains






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      edited Jan 15 at 23:42









      Bernard

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      asked Jan 15 at 23:38









      GenisGenis

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          "Composite" here just means "not irreducible (and not a unit)". Since $a_n$ is not a product of irreducibles, it in particular is not irreducible (since then it would be a product of $1$ irreducible, itself). So, by definition of "irreducible", this means there exist $b$ and $c$ which are not units such that $a_n=bc$.






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            $begingroup$

            "Composite" here just means "not irreducible (and not a unit)". Since $a_n$ is not a product of irreducibles, it in particular is not irreducible (since then it would be a product of $1$ irreducible, itself). So, by definition of "irreducible", this means there exist $b$ and $c$ which are not units such that $a_n=bc$.






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              $begingroup$

              "Composite" here just means "not irreducible (and not a unit)". Since $a_n$ is not a product of irreducibles, it in particular is not irreducible (since then it would be a product of $1$ irreducible, itself). So, by definition of "irreducible", this means there exist $b$ and $c$ which are not units such that $a_n=bc$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









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                $begingroup$

                "Composite" here just means "not irreducible (and not a unit)". Since $a_n$ is not a product of irreducibles, it in particular is not irreducible (since then it would be a product of $1$ irreducible, itself). So, by definition of "irreducible", this means there exist $b$ and $c$ which are not units such that $a_n=bc$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









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                "Composite" here just means "not irreducible (and not a unit)". Since $a_n$ is not a product of irreducibles, it in particular is not irreducible (since then it would be a product of $1$ irreducible, itself). So, by definition of "irreducible", this means there exist $b$ and $c$ which are not units such that $a_n=bc$.







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                answered Jan 15 at 23:41









                Eric WofseyEric Wofsey

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