Fourier inversion Lemma (Lars Hörmander)











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I always like to have more than one proof for the same theorem. The other day I was browsing through my copy of Lars Hörmander's book on PDE (volume 1).
When proving the fourier inversion formula (on $mathcal{S}(mathbb{R}^n)$) he makes use of the following lemma:



If $T colon mathcal{S}(mathbb R^n) to mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$ is a linear map such that:
$$TD_j phi = D_j T phi$$ and
$$Tx_j phi = x_j T phi$$ for all $j in { 1 , ldots n}$ and $phi in mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$. Then $T phi = c phi$, for some constant $c$.



In the proof of this lemma he shows that if $phi (y)=0$, for some $yin mathbb R^n$ then $phi$ can be written in the following form:
$$phi(x) = sum_{j=1}^n {(x_j -y_j)phi_j(x)}quad mbox{with } phi_j in mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$$
(this is not the problem - as he gives a good hint as to how to construct the $phi_j$'s).



He goes on showing that:
$$T phi(x) = sum_{j=1}^n(x_j-y_j)Tphi_j(x)=0 quad mbox{ if } x=y.$$
(this is also really simple - but now comes the tricky part).



He goes on to conclude that there exist some function $c(x)$ such that $Tphi(x) = c(x) phi(x)$, and that $c$ is independent of $phi$. I simply can't see how he arrives at that fact.










share|cite|improve this question






















  • Here is a line of thought that I've done: If $phi(y)=0$ then we can prove (from the argument above) that $Tphi(y)=0$, but since $T colon mathcal S (mathbb R^n) to mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$ then we have that $T^mphi(y) =0$ for all $m in mathbb N$. I still have no idea if this is useful or not.
    – Martin
    Apr 29 '15 at 5:54






  • 2




    Just define $c(x)$ by this equation. To see that it's independent of $varphi$, observe that $(Tvarphi)(x)$ only depends on $varphi(x)$, not on the function as a whole (consider the difference of two functions that take the same value at $x$ to see this). So $c(t)varphi(t)$ for a given $t$ can be obtained by applying $T$ to $varphi(t)f(x-t)$, where $f$ is a fixed function with $f(0)=1$.
    – Christian Remling
    May 16 '15 at 4:32










  • this is just a muse, but the $c(i)$ might be a concept parallel to this one: If $v_1,..,v_n$ is a basis, and $alpha_i,..,alpha(n)$ a set of scalars, ${alpha_i.v_i}$ is also a basis
    – JonMark Perry
    May 22 '15 at 4:19












  • This is a comment on the other post, the one you just deleted - can't comment there. You deleted it too fast! If you undelete it (and let me know you've done so) you'll get a big chuckle out of the answer I'd like to post - it's much simpler than we thought, no Baire category needed...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jul 16 '16 at 13:31










  • It's undeleted :o)
    – Martin
    Jul 17 '16 at 6:05















up vote
4
down vote

favorite












I always like to have more than one proof for the same theorem. The other day I was browsing through my copy of Lars Hörmander's book on PDE (volume 1).
When proving the fourier inversion formula (on $mathcal{S}(mathbb{R}^n)$) he makes use of the following lemma:



If $T colon mathcal{S}(mathbb R^n) to mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$ is a linear map such that:
$$TD_j phi = D_j T phi$$ and
$$Tx_j phi = x_j T phi$$ for all $j in { 1 , ldots n}$ and $phi in mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$. Then $T phi = c phi$, for some constant $c$.



In the proof of this lemma he shows that if $phi (y)=0$, for some $yin mathbb R^n$ then $phi$ can be written in the following form:
$$phi(x) = sum_{j=1}^n {(x_j -y_j)phi_j(x)}quad mbox{with } phi_j in mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$$
(this is not the problem - as he gives a good hint as to how to construct the $phi_j$'s).



He goes on showing that:
$$T phi(x) = sum_{j=1}^n(x_j-y_j)Tphi_j(x)=0 quad mbox{ if } x=y.$$
(this is also really simple - but now comes the tricky part).



He goes on to conclude that there exist some function $c(x)$ such that $Tphi(x) = c(x) phi(x)$, and that $c$ is independent of $phi$. I simply can't see how he arrives at that fact.










share|cite|improve this question






















  • Here is a line of thought that I've done: If $phi(y)=0$ then we can prove (from the argument above) that $Tphi(y)=0$, but since $T colon mathcal S (mathbb R^n) to mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$ then we have that $T^mphi(y) =0$ for all $m in mathbb N$. I still have no idea if this is useful or not.
    – Martin
    Apr 29 '15 at 5:54






  • 2




    Just define $c(x)$ by this equation. To see that it's independent of $varphi$, observe that $(Tvarphi)(x)$ only depends on $varphi(x)$, not on the function as a whole (consider the difference of two functions that take the same value at $x$ to see this). So $c(t)varphi(t)$ for a given $t$ can be obtained by applying $T$ to $varphi(t)f(x-t)$, where $f$ is a fixed function with $f(0)=1$.
    – Christian Remling
    May 16 '15 at 4:32










  • this is just a muse, but the $c(i)$ might be a concept parallel to this one: If $v_1,..,v_n$ is a basis, and $alpha_i,..,alpha(n)$ a set of scalars, ${alpha_i.v_i}$ is also a basis
    – JonMark Perry
    May 22 '15 at 4:19












  • This is a comment on the other post, the one you just deleted - can't comment there. You deleted it too fast! If you undelete it (and let me know you've done so) you'll get a big chuckle out of the answer I'd like to post - it's much simpler than we thought, no Baire category needed...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jul 16 '16 at 13:31










  • It's undeleted :o)
    – Martin
    Jul 17 '16 at 6:05













up vote
4
down vote

favorite









up vote
4
down vote

favorite











I always like to have more than one proof for the same theorem. The other day I was browsing through my copy of Lars Hörmander's book on PDE (volume 1).
When proving the fourier inversion formula (on $mathcal{S}(mathbb{R}^n)$) he makes use of the following lemma:



If $T colon mathcal{S}(mathbb R^n) to mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$ is a linear map such that:
$$TD_j phi = D_j T phi$$ and
$$Tx_j phi = x_j T phi$$ for all $j in { 1 , ldots n}$ and $phi in mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$. Then $T phi = c phi$, for some constant $c$.



In the proof of this lemma he shows that if $phi (y)=0$, for some $yin mathbb R^n$ then $phi$ can be written in the following form:
$$phi(x) = sum_{j=1}^n {(x_j -y_j)phi_j(x)}quad mbox{with } phi_j in mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$$
(this is not the problem - as he gives a good hint as to how to construct the $phi_j$'s).



He goes on showing that:
$$T phi(x) = sum_{j=1}^n(x_j-y_j)Tphi_j(x)=0 quad mbox{ if } x=y.$$
(this is also really simple - but now comes the tricky part).



He goes on to conclude that there exist some function $c(x)$ such that $Tphi(x) = c(x) phi(x)$, and that $c$ is independent of $phi$. I simply can't see how he arrives at that fact.










share|cite|improve this question













I always like to have more than one proof for the same theorem. The other day I was browsing through my copy of Lars Hörmander's book on PDE (volume 1).
When proving the fourier inversion formula (on $mathcal{S}(mathbb{R}^n)$) he makes use of the following lemma:



If $T colon mathcal{S}(mathbb R^n) to mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$ is a linear map such that:
$$TD_j phi = D_j T phi$$ and
$$Tx_j phi = x_j T phi$$ for all $j in { 1 , ldots n}$ and $phi in mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$. Then $T phi = c phi$, for some constant $c$.



In the proof of this lemma he shows that if $phi (y)=0$, for some $yin mathbb R^n$ then $phi$ can be written in the following form:
$$phi(x) = sum_{j=1}^n {(x_j -y_j)phi_j(x)}quad mbox{with } phi_j in mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$$
(this is not the problem - as he gives a good hint as to how to construct the $phi_j$'s).



He goes on showing that:
$$T phi(x) = sum_{j=1}^n(x_j-y_j)Tphi_j(x)=0 quad mbox{ if } x=y.$$
(this is also really simple - but now comes the tricky part).



He goes on to conclude that there exist some function $c(x)$ such that $Tphi(x) = c(x) phi(x)$, and that $c$ is independent of $phi$. I simply can't see how he arrives at that fact.







fourier-analysis






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share|cite|improve this question











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asked Apr 28 '15 at 19:10









Martin

1,7441412




1,7441412












  • Here is a line of thought that I've done: If $phi(y)=0$ then we can prove (from the argument above) that $Tphi(y)=0$, but since $T colon mathcal S (mathbb R^n) to mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$ then we have that $T^mphi(y) =0$ for all $m in mathbb N$. I still have no idea if this is useful or not.
    – Martin
    Apr 29 '15 at 5:54






  • 2




    Just define $c(x)$ by this equation. To see that it's independent of $varphi$, observe that $(Tvarphi)(x)$ only depends on $varphi(x)$, not on the function as a whole (consider the difference of two functions that take the same value at $x$ to see this). So $c(t)varphi(t)$ for a given $t$ can be obtained by applying $T$ to $varphi(t)f(x-t)$, where $f$ is a fixed function with $f(0)=1$.
    – Christian Remling
    May 16 '15 at 4:32










  • this is just a muse, but the $c(i)$ might be a concept parallel to this one: If $v_1,..,v_n$ is a basis, and $alpha_i,..,alpha(n)$ a set of scalars, ${alpha_i.v_i}$ is also a basis
    – JonMark Perry
    May 22 '15 at 4:19












  • This is a comment on the other post, the one you just deleted - can't comment there. You deleted it too fast! If you undelete it (and let me know you've done so) you'll get a big chuckle out of the answer I'd like to post - it's much simpler than we thought, no Baire category needed...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jul 16 '16 at 13:31










  • It's undeleted :o)
    – Martin
    Jul 17 '16 at 6:05


















  • Here is a line of thought that I've done: If $phi(y)=0$ then we can prove (from the argument above) that $Tphi(y)=0$, but since $T colon mathcal S (mathbb R^n) to mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$ then we have that $T^mphi(y) =0$ for all $m in mathbb N$. I still have no idea if this is useful or not.
    – Martin
    Apr 29 '15 at 5:54






  • 2




    Just define $c(x)$ by this equation. To see that it's independent of $varphi$, observe that $(Tvarphi)(x)$ only depends on $varphi(x)$, not on the function as a whole (consider the difference of two functions that take the same value at $x$ to see this). So $c(t)varphi(t)$ for a given $t$ can be obtained by applying $T$ to $varphi(t)f(x-t)$, where $f$ is a fixed function with $f(0)=1$.
    – Christian Remling
    May 16 '15 at 4:32










  • this is just a muse, but the $c(i)$ might be a concept parallel to this one: If $v_1,..,v_n$ is a basis, and $alpha_i,..,alpha(n)$ a set of scalars, ${alpha_i.v_i}$ is also a basis
    – JonMark Perry
    May 22 '15 at 4:19












  • This is a comment on the other post, the one you just deleted - can't comment there. You deleted it too fast! If you undelete it (and let me know you've done so) you'll get a big chuckle out of the answer I'd like to post - it's much simpler than we thought, no Baire category needed...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jul 16 '16 at 13:31










  • It's undeleted :o)
    – Martin
    Jul 17 '16 at 6:05
















Here is a line of thought that I've done: If $phi(y)=0$ then we can prove (from the argument above) that $Tphi(y)=0$, but since $T colon mathcal S (mathbb R^n) to mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$ then we have that $T^mphi(y) =0$ for all $m in mathbb N$. I still have no idea if this is useful or not.
– Martin
Apr 29 '15 at 5:54




Here is a line of thought that I've done: If $phi(y)=0$ then we can prove (from the argument above) that $Tphi(y)=0$, but since $T colon mathcal S (mathbb R^n) to mathcal S (mathbb R^n)$ then we have that $T^mphi(y) =0$ for all $m in mathbb N$. I still have no idea if this is useful or not.
– Martin
Apr 29 '15 at 5:54




2




2




Just define $c(x)$ by this equation. To see that it's independent of $varphi$, observe that $(Tvarphi)(x)$ only depends on $varphi(x)$, not on the function as a whole (consider the difference of two functions that take the same value at $x$ to see this). So $c(t)varphi(t)$ for a given $t$ can be obtained by applying $T$ to $varphi(t)f(x-t)$, where $f$ is a fixed function with $f(0)=1$.
– Christian Remling
May 16 '15 at 4:32




Just define $c(x)$ by this equation. To see that it's independent of $varphi$, observe that $(Tvarphi)(x)$ only depends on $varphi(x)$, not on the function as a whole (consider the difference of two functions that take the same value at $x$ to see this). So $c(t)varphi(t)$ for a given $t$ can be obtained by applying $T$ to $varphi(t)f(x-t)$, where $f$ is a fixed function with $f(0)=1$.
– Christian Remling
May 16 '15 at 4:32












this is just a muse, but the $c(i)$ might be a concept parallel to this one: If $v_1,..,v_n$ is a basis, and $alpha_i,..,alpha(n)$ a set of scalars, ${alpha_i.v_i}$ is also a basis
– JonMark Perry
May 22 '15 at 4:19






this is just a muse, but the $c(i)$ might be a concept parallel to this one: If $v_1,..,v_n$ is a basis, and $alpha_i,..,alpha(n)$ a set of scalars, ${alpha_i.v_i}$ is also a basis
– JonMark Perry
May 22 '15 at 4:19














This is a comment on the other post, the one you just deleted - can't comment there. You deleted it too fast! If you undelete it (and let me know you've done so) you'll get a big chuckle out of the answer I'd like to post - it's much simpler than we thought, no Baire category needed...
– David C. Ullrich
Jul 16 '16 at 13:31




This is a comment on the other post, the one you just deleted - can't comment there. You deleted it too fast! If you undelete it (and let me know you've done so) you'll get a big chuckle out of the answer I'd like to post - it's much simpler than we thought, no Baire category needed...
– David C. Ullrich
Jul 16 '16 at 13:31












It's undeleted :o)
– Martin
Jul 17 '16 at 6:05




It's undeleted :o)
– Martin
Jul 17 '16 at 6:05










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
0
down vote



accepted










So here's an answer to my own question. Just in case it would be of interest for someone else.



Firstly take $phi in mathcal S(mathbb R^n)$ such that $phi >0$. Now we may define $c$ by:
begin{equation}
c(x) = frac{(Tphi)(x)}{phi(x) }
end{equation}

Then naturally we have that $Tphi = cphi$, for this particular choice of $phi$.



Now take an arbitrary $psi in mathcal S(mathbb R^n)$, and some fixed point $y in mathbb R^n$. Define a function $fin mathcal S(mathbb R^n)$ by:
begin{equation}
f(x) = psi(x)phi(y)-phi(x)psi(y).
end{equation}

Note that $f(y)=0$. Thus we know that $(Tf)(y)=0$. On the other hand we have that:
begin{align}
(Tf)(x)&=phi(y)(Tpsi)(x)-psi(y)(Tphi)(x) quad Rightarrow\
(Tf)(y)&=phi(y)(Tpsi)(y)-psi(y)(Tphi)(y).
end{align}

Hence for the fixed point $y$ we have that $0=phi(y)(Tpsi)(y)-psi(y)(Tphi)(y)$, which imply that:
begin{equation}
(Tpsi)(y)=psi(y) frac{(Tphi)(y)}{phi(y)} = c(y)psi(y).
end{equation}

Since both $psi$ and $y$ where arbitrarily chosen we have the desired result.






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    1 Answer
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    oldest

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    active

    oldest

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    up vote
    0
    down vote



    accepted










    So here's an answer to my own question. Just in case it would be of interest for someone else.



    Firstly take $phi in mathcal S(mathbb R^n)$ such that $phi >0$. Now we may define $c$ by:
    begin{equation}
    c(x) = frac{(Tphi)(x)}{phi(x) }
    end{equation}

    Then naturally we have that $Tphi = cphi$, for this particular choice of $phi$.



    Now take an arbitrary $psi in mathcal S(mathbb R^n)$, and some fixed point $y in mathbb R^n$. Define a function $fin mathcal S(mathbb R^n)$ by:
    begin{equation}
    f(x) = psi(x)phi(y)-phi(x)psi(y).
    end{equation}

    Note that $f(y)=0$. Thus we know that $(Tf)(y)=0$. On the other hand we have that:
    begin{align}
    (Tf)(x)&=phi(y)(Tpsi)(x)-psi(y)(Tphi)(x) quad Rightarrow\
    (Tf)(y)&=phi(y)(Tpsi)(y)-psi(y)(Tphi)(y).
    end{align}

    Hence for the fixed point $y$ we have that $0=phi(y)(Tpsi)(y)-psi(y)(Tphi)(y)$, which imply that:
    begin{equation}
    (Tpsi)(y)=psi(y) frac{(Tphi)(y)}{phi(y)} = c(y)psi(y).
    end{equation}

    Since both $psi$ and $y$ where arbitrarily chosen we have the desired result.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      0
      down vote



      accepted










      So here's an answer to my own question. Just in case it would be of interest for someone else.



      Firstly take $phi in mathcal S(mathbb R^n)$ such that $phi >0$. Now we may define $c$ by:
      begin{equation}
      c(x) = frac{(Tphi)(x)}{phi(x) }
      end{equation}

      Then naturally we have that $Tphi = cphi$, for this particular choice of $phi$.



      Now take an arbitrary $psi in mathcal S(mathbb R^n)$, and some fixed point $y in mathbb R^n$. Define a function $fin mathcal S(mathbb R^n)$ by:
      begin{equation}
      f(x) = psi(x)phi(y)-phi(x)psi(y).
      end{equation}

      Note that $f(y)=0$. Thus we know that $(Tf)(y)=0$. On the other hand we have that:
      begin{align}
      (Tf)(x)&=phi(y)(Tpsi)(x)-psi(y)(Tphi)(x) quad Rightarrow\
      (Tf)(y)&=phi(y)(Tpsi)(y)-psi(y)(Tphi)(y).
      end{align}

      Hence for the fixed point $y$ we have that $0=phi(y)(Tpsi)(y)-psi(y)(Tphi)(y)$, which imply that:
      begin{equation}
      (Tpsi)(y)=psi(y) frac{(Tphi)(y)}{phi(y)} = c(y)psi(y).
      end{equation}

      Since both $psi$ and $y$ where arbitrarily chosen we have the desired result.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        0
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        0
        down vote



        accepted






        So here's an answer to my own question. Just in case it would be of interest for someone else.



        Firstly take $phi in mathcal S(mathbb R^n)$ such that $phi >0$. Now we may define $c$ by:
        begin{equation}
        c(x) = frac{(Tphi)(x)}{phi(x) }
        end{equation}

        Then naturally we have that $Tphi = cphi$, for this particular choice of $phi$.



        Now take an arbitrary $psi in mathcal S(mathbb R^n)$, and some fixed point $y in mathbb R^n$. Define a function $fin mathcal S(mathbb R^n)$ by:
        begin{equation}
        f(x) = psi(x)phi(y)-phi(x)psi(y).
        end{equation}

        Note that $f(y)=0$. Thus we know that $(Tf)(y)=0$. On the other hand we have that:
        begin{align}
        (Tf)(x)&=phi(y)(Tpsi)(x)-psi(y)(Tphi)(x) quad Rightarrow\
        (Tf)(y)&=phi(y)(Tpsi)(y)-psi(y)(Tphi)(y).
        end{align}

        Hence for the fixed point $y$ we have that $0=phi(y)(Tpsi)(y)-psi(y)(Tphi)(y)$, which imply that:
        begin{equation}
        (Tpsi)(y)=psi(y) frac{(Tphi)(y)}{phi(y)} = c(y)psi(y).
        end{equation}

        Since both $psi$ and $y$ where arbitrarily chosen we have the desired result.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        So here's an answer to my own question. Just in case it would be of interest for someone else.



        Firstly take $phi in mathcal S(mathbb R^n)$ such that $phi >0$. Now we may define $c$ by:
        begin{equation}
        c(x) = frac{(Tphi)(x)}{phi(x) }
        end{equation}

        Then naturally we have that $Tphi = cphi$, for this particular choice of $phi$.



        Now take an arbitrary $psi in mathcal S(mathbb R^n)$, and some fixed point $y in mathbb R^n$. Define a function $fin mathcal S(mathbb R^n)$ by:
        begin{equation}
        f(x) = psi(x)phi(y)-phi(x)psi(y).
        end{equation}

        Note that $f(y)=0$. Thus we know that $(Tf)(y)=0$. On the other hand we have that:
        begin{align}
        (Tf)(x)&=phi(y)(Tpsi)(x)-psi(y)(Tphi)(x) quad Rightarrow\
        (Tf)(y)&=phi(y)(Tpsi)(y)-psi(y)(Tphi)(y).
        end{align}

        Hence for the fixed point $y$ we have that $0=phi(y)(Tpsi)(y)-psi(y)(Tphi)(y)$, which imply that:
        begin{equation}
        (Tpsi)(y)=psi(y) frac{(Tphi)(y)}{phi(y)} = c(y)psi(y).
        end{equation}

        Since both $psi$ and $y$ where arbitrarily chosen we have the desired result.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 1 at 20:00









        Martin

        1,7441412




        1,7441412






























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