Quick question about the term ‘integrable’











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If a math textbook or paper just uses the term “integrable”, for example:
$$f(x) text{is integrable on} [a,b],$$
do we always assume this means Riemann integrable?



Thanks in advance!










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  • 5




    There's nothing certain about $f$ being integrable. It can be Riemann integrable, Lebesgue, Stjeltjes, and so on
    – Jakobian
    Dec 1 at 20:53






  • 6




    No, in general you cannot assume this. However, in most introductory books on real analysis it is usually taken to mean Riemann/Darboux integrability (they are equivalent).
    – projectilemotion
    Dec 1 at 20:57










  • write a function as $f(x)$ instead of just $f$ make me think that this is an elementary book, so probably it will mean that $f$ is Riemann integrable.
    – Masacroso
    Dec 1 at 21:26

















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












If a math textbook or paper just uses the term “integrable”, for example:
$$f(x) text{is integrable on} [a,b],$$
do we always assume this means Riemann integrable?



Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 5




    There's nothing certain about $f$ being integrable. It can be Riemann integrable, Lebesgue, Stjeltjes, and so on
    – Jakobian
    Dec 1 at 20:53






  • 6




    No, in general you cannot assume this. However, in most introductory books on real analysis it is usually taken to mean Riemann/Darboux integrability (they are equivalent).
    – projectilemotion
    Dec 1 at 20:57










  • write a function as $f(x)$ instead of just $f$ make me think that this is an elementary book, so probably it will mean that $f$ is Riemann integrable.
    – Masacroso
    Dec 1 at 21:26















up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











If a math textbook or paper just uses the term “integrable”, for example:
$$f(x) text{is integrable on} [a,b],$$
do we always assume this means Riemann integrable?



Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question













If a math textbook or paper just uses the term “integrable”, for example:
$$f(x) text{is integrable on} [a,b],$$
do we always assume this means Riemann integrable?



Thanks in advance!







real-analysis integration






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asked Dec 1 at 20:51









MathIsLife12

549111




549111








  • 5




    There's nothing certain about $f$ being integrable. It can be Riemann integrable, Lebesgue, Stjeltjes, and so on
    – Jakobian
    Dec 1 at 20:53






  • 6




    No, in general you cannot assume this. However, in most introductory books on real analysis it is usually taken to mean Riemann/Darboux integrability (they are equivalent).
    – projectilemotion
    Dec 1 at 20:57










  • write a function as $f(x)$ instead of just $f$ make me think that this is an elementary book, so probably it will mean that $f$ is Riemann integrable.
    – Masacroso
    Dec 1 at 21:26
















  • 5




    There's nothing certain about $f$ being integrable. It can be Riemann integrable, Lebesgue, Stjeltjes, and so on
    – Jakobian
    Dec 1 at 20:53






  • 6




    No, in general you cannot assume this. However, in most introductory books on real analysis it is usually taken to mean Riemann/Darboux integrability (they are equivalent).
    – projectilemotion
    Dec 1 at 20:57










  • write a function as $f(x)$ instead of just $f$ make me think that this is an elementary book, so probably it will mean that $f$ is Riemann integrable.
    – Masacroso
    Dec 1 at 21:26










5




5




There's nothing certain about $f$ being integrable. It can be Riemann integrable, Lebesgue, Stjeltjes, and so on
– Jakobian
Dec 1 at 20:53




There's nothing certain about $f$ being integrable. It can be Riemann integrable, Lebesgue, Stjeltjes, and so on
– Jakobian
Dec 1 at 20:53




6




6




No, in general you cannot assume this. However, in most introductory books on real analysis it is usually taken to mean Riemann/Darboux integrability (they are equivalent).
– projectilemotion
Dec 1 at 20:57




No, in general you cannot assume this. However, in most introductory books on real analysis it is usually taken to mean Riemann/Darboux integrability (they are equivalent).
– projectilemotion
Dec 1 at 20:57












write a function as $f(x)$ instead of just $f$ make me think that this is an elementary book, so probably it will mean that $f$ is Riemann integrable.
– Masacroso
Dec 1 at 21:26






write a function as $f(x)$ instead of just $f$ make me think that this is an elementary book, so probably it will mean that $f$ is Riemann integrable.
– Masacroso
Dec 1 at 21:26












1 Answer
1






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Depends on the context. For instance, the function
$f: [a,b] longrightarrow mathbb R$ defined by
$$f(x)=begin{cases}1 &text{ if }x in mathbb Q \0&text{ otherwise}end{cases}$$
is Lebesgue integrable but not Riemann integrable.






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    1 Answer
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    up vote
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    down vote













    Depends on the context. For instance, the function
    $f: [a,b] longrightarrow mathbb R$ defined by
    $$f(x)=begin{cases}1 &text{ if }x in mathbb Q \0&text{ otherwise}end{cases}$$
    is Lebesgue integrable but not Riemann integrable.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      4
      down vote













      Depends on the context. For instance, the function
      $f: [a,b] longrightarrow mathbb R$ defined by
      $$f(x)=begin{cases}1 &text{ if }x in mathbb Q \0&text{ otherwise}end{cases}$$
      is Lebesgue integrable but not Riemann integrable.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        4
        down vote










        up vote
        4
        down vote









        Depends on the context. For instance, the function
        $f: [a,b] longrightarrow mathbb R$ defined by
        $$f(x)=begin{cases}1 &text{ if }x in mathbb Q \0&text{ otherwise}end{cases}$$
        is Lebesgue integrable but not Riemann integrable.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Depends on the context. For instance, the function
        $f: [a,b] longrightarrow mathbb R$ defined by
        $$f(x)=begin{cases}1 &text{ if }x in mathbb Q \0&text{ otherwise}end{cases}$$
        is Lebesgue integrable but not Riemann integrable.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 1 at 20:59









        Matt A Pelto

        2,338620




        2,338620






























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