Probability of points on a Line











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Three points $X_1,X_2,X_3$ are selected at random on a line of length $L$. What is the probability that $X_2$ lies between $X_1$ $and$ $X_3$?



I know that all three are equally likely to be in the middle, but I don’t know how that is so, I’m looking for a way to come to that answer.










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    Three points $X_1,X_2,X_3$ are selected at random on a line of length $L$. What is the probability that $X_2$ lies between $X_1$ $and$ $X_3$?



    I know that all three are equally likely to be in the middle, but I don’t know how that is so, I’m looking for a way to come to that answer.










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      up vote
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      favorite











      Three points $X_1,X_2,X_3$ are selected at random on a line of length $L$. What is the probability that $X_2$ lies between $X_1$ $and$ $X_3$?



      I know that all three are equally likely to be in the middle, but I don’t know how that is so, I’m looking for a way to come to that answer.










      share|cite|improve this question













      Three points $X_1,X_2,X_3$ are selected at random on a line of length $L$. What is the probability that $X_2$ lies between $X_1$ $and$ $X_3$?



      I know that all three are equally likely to be in the middle, but I don’t know how that is so, I’m looking for a way to come to that answer.







      probability probability-theory probability-distributions random-variables






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      asked Dec 1 at 21:25









      user601297

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          Clearly $1/3$ due to permutation symmetry.






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            Assuming that $X_{i}$ is coming from a continuous uniform distribution on the interval $(0,L)$ then $P(X_{i}=a)=0$, for any $a$ on the real line. Note that there are many ways to construct an interval of length $L$, such as $(-frac{L}{2},frac{L}{2}$), but I will assume in this case, the interval is $(0,L)$. Then your question is asking to find:



            $P(X_{3}<X_{2}<X_{1})$



            =$int_{x_{3}=0}^{L} int_{x_{3}}^{L}int_{x_{2}}^{L} frac{1}{L^{3}}dx_{1}dx_{2}dx_{3}$






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            • 1




              in the integral, it should be $frac{1}{L^3}$ instead of $frac{1}{L}$.
              – Daniel
              Dec 1 at 22:15










            • @ Daniel...thank you. Yes, it’s the joint density function, again assuming that all RVs are independent.
              – Live Free or π Hard
              Dec 1 at 22:18











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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
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            up vote
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            down vote













            Clearly $1/3$ due to permutation symmetry.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              1
              down vote













              Clearly $1/3$ due to permutation symmetry.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                1
                down vote










                up vote
                1
                down vote









                Clearly $1/3$ due to permutation symmetry.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Clearly $1/3$ due to permutation symmetry.







                share|cite|improve this answer












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                answered Dec 1 at 21:44









                David G. Stork

                9,31921232




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                    Assuming that $X_{i}$ is coming from a continuous uniform distribution on the interval $(0,L)$ then $P(X_{i}=a)=0$, for any $a$ on the real line. Note that there are many ways to construct an interval of length $L$, such as $(-frac{L}{2},frac{L}{2}$), but I will assume in this case, the interval is $(0,L)$. Then your question is asking to find:



                    $P(X_{3}<X_{2}<X_{1})$



                    =$int_{x_{3}=0}^{L} int_{x_{3}}^{L}int_{x_{2}}^{L} frac{1}{L^{3}}dx_{1}dx_{2}dx_{3}$






                    share|cite|improve this answer



















                    • 1




                      in the integral, it should be $frac{1}{L^3}$ instead of $frac{1}{L}$.
                      – Daniel
                      Dec 1 at 22:15










                    • @ Daniel...thank you. Yes, it’s the joint density function, again assuming that all RVs are independent.
                      – Live Free or π Hard
                      Dec 1 at 22:18















                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote













                    Assuming that $X_{i}$ is coming from a continuous uniform distribution on the interval $(0,L)$ then $P(X_{i}=a)=0$, for any $a$ on the real line. Note that there are many ways to construct an interval of length $L$, such as $(-frac{L}{2},frac{L}{2}$), but I will assume in this case, the interval is $(0,L)$. Then your question is asking to find:



                    $P(X_{3}<X_{2}<X_{1})$



                    =$int_{x_{3}=0}^{L} int_{x_{3}}^{L}int_{x_{2}}^{L} frac{1}{L^{3}}dx_{1}dx_{2}dx_{3}$






                    share|cite|improve this answer



















                    • 1




                      in the integral, it should be $frac{1}{L^3}$ instead of $frac{1}{L}$.
                      – Daniel
                      Dec 1 at 22:15










                    • @ Daniel...thank you. Yes, it’s the joint density function, again assuming that all RVs are independent.
                      – Live Free or π Hard
                      Dec 1 at 22:18













                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote









                    Assuming that $X_{i}$ is coming from a continuous uniform distribution on the interval $(0,L)$ then $P(X_{i}=a)=0$, for any $a$ on the real line. Note that there are many ways to construct an interval of length $L$, such as $(-frac{L}{2},frac{L}{2}$), but I will assume in this case, the interval is $(0,L)$. Then your question is asking to find:



                    $P(X_{3}<X_{2}<X_{1})$



                    =$int_{x_{3}=0}^{L} int_{x_{3}}^{L}int_{x_{2}}^{L} frac{1}{L^{3}}dx_{1}dx_{2}dx_{3}$






                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    Assuming that $X_{i}$ is coming from a continuous uniform distribution on the interval $(0,L)$ then $P(X_{i}=a)=0$, for any $a$ on the real line. Note that there are many ways to construct an interval of length $L$, such as $(-frac{L}{2},frac{L}{2}$), but I will assume in this case, the interval is $(0,L)$. Then your question is asking to find:



                    $P(X_{3}<X_{2}<X_{1})$



                    =$int_{x_{3}=0}^{L} int_{x_{3}}^{L}int_{x_{2}}^{L} frac{1}{L^{3}}dx_{1}dx_{2}dx_{3}$







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Dec 1 at 22:19

























                    answered Dec 1 at 22:12









                    Live Free or π Hard

                    440213




                    440213








                    • 1




                      in the integral, it should be $frac{1}{L^3}$ instead of $frac{1}{L}$.
                      – Daniel
                      Dec 1 at 22:15










                    • @ Daniel...thank you. Yes, it’s the joint density function, again assuming that all RVs are independent.
                      – Live Free or π Hard
                      Dec 1 at 22:18














                    • 1




                      in the integral, it should be $frac{1}{L^3}$ instead of $frac{1}{L}$.
                      – Daniel
                      Dec 1 at 22:15










                    • @ Daniel...thank you. Yes, it’s the joint density function, again assuming that all RVs are independent.
                      – Live Free or π Hard
                      Dec 1 at 22:18








                    1




                    1




                    in the integral, it should be $frac{1}{L^3}$ instead of $frac{1}{L}$.
                    – Daniel
                    Dec 1 at 22:15




                    in the integral, it should be $frac{1}{L^3}$ instead of $frac{1}{L}$.
                    – Daniel
                    Dec 1 at 22:15












                    @ Daniel...thank you. Yes, it’s the joint density function, again assuming that all RVs are independent.
                    – Live Free or π Hard
                    Dec 1 at 22:18




                    @ Daniel...thank you. Yes, it’s the joint density function, again assuming that all RVs are independent.
                    – Live Free or π Hard
                    Dec 1 at 22:18


















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