How is $sin (x)$ differentiable at $x=pi /2$











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If we use the limit formula we have that as $xto pi/2$ from the left we have a positive slope and as it approaches from the right we have a negative slope.
So, the right hand limit and left hand limit are different. How is it differentiable at the point then ?
We use the same logic and say $|x|$ is not differentiable at $x=0$










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  • 3




    One slope is positive, and the other is negative, but in the limit they're both 0. For $|x|$, one limit is 1, the other is -1.
    – Todor Markov
    2 days ago






  • 2




    It's not the sign that's the issue with the absolute value, it's that the left and right hand limits are different. The limits are the same for sine.
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago










  • The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees
    – Nigel Goveas
    2 days ago










  • Do you have a better understanding of this concept now? If there is anything unclear or confusing still, feel free to mention it!
    – KM101
    2 days ago










  • "The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees" NO. The limit is $0$, not "close to $0$". The "derivative at $x=pi/2$" by definition is a fixed number, not an approximation.
    – user587192
    2 days ago

















up vote
-1
down vote

favorite












If we use the limit formula we have that as $xto pi/2$ from the left we have a positive slope and as it approaches from the right we have a negative slope.
So, the right hand limit and left hand limit are different. How is it differentiable at the point then ?
We use the same logic and say $|x|$ is not differentiable at $x=0$










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 3




    One slope is positive, and the other is negative, but in the limit they're both 0. For $|x|$, one limit is 1, the other is -1.
    – Todor Markov
    2 days ago






  • 2




    It's not the sign that's the issue with the absolute value, it's that the left and right hand limits are different. The limits are the same for sine.
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago










  • The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees
    – Nigel Goveas
    2 days ago










  • Do you have a better understanding of this concept now? If there is anything unclear or confusing still, feel free to mention it!
    – KM101
    2 days ago










  • "The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees" NO. The limit is $0$, not "close to $0$". The "derivative at $x=pi/2$" by definition is a fixed number, not an approximation.
    – user587192
    2 days ago















up vote
-1
down vote

favorite









up vote
-1
down vote

favorite











If we use the limit formula we have that as $xto pi/2$ from the left we have a positive slope and as it approaches from the right we have a negative slope.
So, the right hand limit and left hand limit are different. How is it differentiable at the point then ?
We use the same logic and say $|x|$ is not differentiable at $x=0$










share|cite|improve this question















If we use the limit formula we have that as $xto pi/2$ from the left we have a positive slope and as it approaches from the right we have a negative slope.
So, the right hand limit and left hand limit are different. How is it differentiable at the point then ?
We use the same logic and say $|x|$ is not differentiable at $x=0$







calculus limits






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited yesterday









user376343

2,4981718




2,4981718










asked 2 days ago









Nigel Goveas

304




304








  • 3




    One slope is positive, and the other is negative, but in the limit they're both 0. For $|x|$, one limit is 1, the other is -1.
    – Todor Markov
    2 days ago






  • 2




    It's not the sign that's the issue with the absolute value, it's that the left and right hand limits are different. The limits are the same for sine.
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago










  • The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees
    – Nigel Goveas
    2 days ago










  • Do you have a better understanding of this concept now? If there is anything unclear or confusing still, feel free to mention it!
    – KM101
    2 days ago










  • "The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees" NO. The limit is $0$, not "close to $0$". The "derivative at $x=pi/2$" by definition is a fixed number, not an approximation.
    – user587192
    2 days ago
















  • 3




    One slope is positive, and the other is negative, but in the limit they're both 0. For $|x|$, one limit is 1, the other is -1.
    – Todor Markov
    2 days ago






  • 2




    It's not the sign that's the issue with the absolute value, it's that the left and right hand limits are different. The limits are the same for sine.
    – Matt Samuel
    2 days ago










  • The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees
    – Nigel Goveas
    2 days ago










  • Do you have a better understanding of this concept now? If there is anything unclear or confusing still, feel free to mention it!
    – KM101
    2 days ago










  • "The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees" NO. The limit is $0$, not "close to $0$". The "derivative at $x=pi/2$" by definition is a fixed number, not an approximation.
    – user587192
    2 days ago










3




3




One slope is positive, and the other is negative, but in the limit they're both 0. For $|x|$, one limit is 1, the other is -1.
– Todor Markov
2 days ago




One slope is positive, and the other is negative, but in the limit they're both 0. For $|x|$, one limit is 1, the other is -1.
– Todor Markov
2 days ago




2




2




It's not the sign that's the issue with the absolute value, it's that the left and right hand limits are different. The limits are the same for sine.
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago




It's not the sign that's the issue with the absolute value, it's that the left and right hand limits are different. The limits are the same for sine.
– Matt Samuel
2 days ago












The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees
– Nigel Goveas
2 days ago




The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees
– Nigel Goveas
2 days ago












Do you have a better understanding of this concept now? If there is anything unclear or confusing still, feel free to mention it!
– KM101
2 days ago




Do you have a better understanding of this concept now? If there is anything unclear or confusing still, feel free to mention it!
– KM101
2 days ago












"The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees" NO. The limit is $0$, not "close to $0$". The "derivative at $x=pi/2$" by definition is a fixed number, not an approximation.
– user587192
2 days ago






"The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees" NO. The limit is $0$, not "close to $0$". The "derivative at $x=pi/2$" by definition is a fixed number, not an approximation.
– user587192
2 days ago












6 Answers
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To respond to your comments:




The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees.




It's not correct that "the limit values are almost the same". The left-hand limit is exactly $0$, no more, no less. The right-hand limit is also exactly $0$, no more, no less. Since the left-hand limit and the right-hand limit are equal (exactly equal), the limit exists.



It's true that "the angles differ", but it also doesn't matter. The definition of a derivative doesn't involve or mention angles at all.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    This is a logical question. However, you can show the limit is equivalent for both the LHS and RHS by



    $$lim_{x to frac{pi}{2}^+}sin’x = cosbigg(frac{pi}{2}^+bigg) = 0$$



    $$lim_{x to frac{pi}{2}^-}sin’x = cosbigg(frac{pi}{2}^-bigg) = 0$$



    Let’s put this example aside for a second and look at $y = vert xvert$ and $y = x^2$, which are similar to your example in that the slopes seem to differ at $x > 0$ and $x < 0$. Here, the derivative doesn’t exist for $y = vert xvert$ since the RHS and LHS limits are not equal, but the derivative does exist for $y = x^2$, so what is the difference?



    You can observe the reason visually without calculating. Check https://www.desmos.com/calculator/czqmiiuxrr (the graph the functions). Then, try to zoom in on $x = 0$. Notice that $y = x^2$ seems to flatten out the more you zoom in. However, no matter how much you zoom in on $y = vert xvert$, it always retains its V-shape.



    $sin x$ behaves like $y = x^2$ in this regard. It flattens out if you zoom in on $x = frac{pi}{2}$, so the slope of the tangent at that point is $0$. You can check https://www.desmos.com/calculator/l5lv0sypss (the graph of $sin x$) to see what I mean.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • That's seems more like it. It's more a technical thing than actucal calculations. Do you know of any graphs in which the right hand and left hand limits are both the same(by the derivative formula) but the function is not differentiable at the point ?
      – Nigel Goveas
      2 days ago










    • It can be shown through calculations (first part of the answer), but it can be understood much more easily when visualized in this way. Also, if the RHS and LHS limits of a function are equal at a point by the definition of a derivative, then they approach the same slope or rate of change as $x$ tends to that value. (Hence, it is defined.)
      – KM101
      2 days ago




















    up vote
    0
    down vote













    From the left it approaches to $0$, and from the right it approaches to $0$ as well.



    Compare this to $|x|$, from the left it approaches to $-1$, and from the right it goes to $+1$.



    Do you see the difference?






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees
      – Nigel Goveas
      2 days ago












    • @NigelGoveas '0 point something' is the value of what? the slope? Remember the slope is the tangent of the angle, and for small angles $tan theta approx theta$, so there's a smooth transition around $0$. I don't see how you conclude about the 180 value
      – caverac
      2 days ago










    • @NigelGoveas $tan 0^mathrm{o}= tan 180^mathrm{o}$. The slopes are the same.
      – eyeballfrog
      2 days ago












    • Well, but as crosses π/2 the slope is negative and the angle is obtuse. I know the modulus of the limits are same and the approach 0. But the angles do differ so what about that ?
      – Nigel Goveas
      2 days ago






    • 1




      Zoom in on the graph of $sin x$ at $x = frac{pi}{2}$. It flattens out. The graph of $y = vert xvert$ is always V-shaped at $x = 0$ no matter how much you zoom in on it.
      – KM101
      2 days ago




















    up vote
    0
    down vote













    We have that



    $$lim_{xto frac {pi}2} frac{sin x-sin frac {pi}2}{x-frac {pi}2}
    =lim_{yto 0} frac{sin left( frac {pi}2+yright)-1}{y}
    =lim_{yto 0} frac{cos y-1}{y}=lim_{yto 0} left(ycdotfrac{cos y-1}{y^2}right)=0cdot left(-frac12right)=0$$






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Why aren't you checking the left hand right hand limits? We should check that before we say that limit exists at that point
      – Nigel Goveas
      2 days ago










    • We can repeat exactly the same steps for the left hand and right hand limits which are indeed both equal to zero.
      – gimusi
      2 days ago


















    up vote
    0
    down vote













    The limit is 0 each case. In one case the limit is approached through positive values, and in the other the limit is approached through negative values; but in each case the limit itself is the same: zero.






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      up vote
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      It looks you are considering the signs of the numerator and denominator in:
      $$lim_{xto frac{pi}{2}^-} frac{sin(x)-sin{frac{pi}{2}}}{x-frac{pi}{2}} text{and} lim_{xto frac{pi}{2}^+} frac{sin(x)-sin{frac{pi}{2}}}{x-frac{pi}{2}}.$$
      In the LHS limit, both numerator and denominator are negative, while in the RHS limit, the numerator is negative and denominator is positive, which seems a contradiction to you. ("So, the right hand limit and left hand limit are different.") The thing is, as others pointed, both LHS and RHS limits are eventually equal to zero.



      As an easier example, consider the derivative of $f(x)=x^2$ at $x=0$. By your reasoning the function must not have a derivative, while it does have it, because:
      $$lim_{xto 0^-} frac{x^2-0}{x-0}=0 text{and} lim_{xto 0^+} frac{x^2-0}{x-0}=0.$$






      share|cite|improve this answer























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        6 Answers
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        6 Answers
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        up vote
        1
        down vote













        To respond to your comments:




        The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees.




        It's not correct that "the limit values are almost the same". The left-hand limit is exactly $0$, no more, no less. The right-hand limit is also exactly $0$, no more, no less. Since the left-hand limit and the right-hand limit are equal (exactly equal), the limit exists.



        It's true that "the angles differ", but it also doesn't matter. The definition of a derivative doesn't involve or mention angles at all.






        share|cite|improve this answer

























          up vote
          1
          down vote













          To respond to your comments:




          The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees.




          It's not correct that "the limit values are almost the same". The left-hand limit is exactly $0$, no more, no less. The right-hand limit is also exactly $0$, no more, no less. Since the left-hand limit and the right-hand limit are equal (exactly equal), the limit exists.



          It's true that "the angles differ", but it also doesn't matter. The definition of a derivative doesn't involve or mention angles at all.






          share|cite|improve this answer























            up vote
            1
            down vote










            up vote
            1
            down vote









            To respond to your comments:




            The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees.




            It's not correct that "the limit values are almost the same". The left-hand limit is exactly $0$, no more, no less. The right-hand limit is also exactly $0$, no more, no less. Since the left-hand limit and the right-hand limit are equal (exactly equal), the limit exists.



            It's true that "the angles differ", but it also doesn't matter. The definition of a derivative doesn't involve or mention angles at all.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            To respond to your comments:




            The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees.




            It's not correct that "the limit values are almost the same". The left-hand limit is exactly $0$, no more, no less. The right-hand limit is also exactly $0$, no more, no less. Since the left-hand limit and the right-hand limit are equal (exactly equal), the limit exists.



            It's true that "the angles differ", but it also doesn't matter. The definition of a derivative doesn't involve or mention angles at all.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 2 days ago









            Tanner Swett

            3,9561638




            3,9561638






















                up vote
                1
                down vote













                This is a logical question. However, you can show the limit is equivalent for both the LHS and RHS by



                $$lim_{x to frac{pi}{2}^+}sin’x = cosbigg(frac{pi}{2}^+bigg) = 0$$



                $$lim_{x to frac{pi}{2}^-}sin’x = cosbigg(frac{pi}{2}^-bigg) = 0$$



                Let’s put this example aside for a second and look at $y = vert xvert$ and $y = x^2$, which are similar to your example in that the slopes seem to differ at $x > 0$ and $x < 0$. Here, the derivative doesn’t exist for $y = vert xvert$ since the RHS and LHS limits are not equal, but the derivative does exist for $y = x^2$, so what is the difference?



                You can observe the reason visually without calculating. Check https://www.desmos.com/calculator/czqmiiuxrr (the graph the functions). Then, try to zoom in on $x = 0$. Notice that $y = x^2$ seems to flatten out the more you zoom in. However, no matter how much you zoom in on $y = vert xvert$, it always retains its V-shape.



                $sin x$ behaves like $y = x^2$ in this regard. It flattens out if you zoom in on $x = frac{pi}{2}$, so the slope of the tangent at that point is $0$. You can check https://www.desmos.com/calculator/l5lv0sypss (the graph of $sin x$) to see what I mean.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                • That's seems more like it. It's more a technical thing than actucal calculations. Do you know of any graphs in which the right hand and left hand limits are both the same(by the derivative formula) but the function is not differentiable at the point ?
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago










                • It can be shown through calculations (first part of the answer), but it can be understood much more easily when visualized in this way. Also, if the RHS and LHS limits of a function are equal at a point by the definition of a derivative, then they approach the same slope or rate of change as $x$ tends to that value. (Hence, it is defined.)
                  – KM101
                  2 days ago

















                up vote
                1
                down vote













                This is a logical question. However, you can show the limit is equivalent for both the LHS and RHS by



                $$lim_{x to frac{pi}{2}^+}sin’x = cosbigg(frac{pi}{2}^+bigg) = 0$$



                $$lim_{x to frac{pi}{2}^-}sin’x = cosbigg(frac{pi}{2}^-bigg) = 0$$



                Let’s put this example aside for a second and look at $y = vert xvert$ and $y = x^2$, which are similar to your example in that the slopes seem to differ at $x > 0$ and $x < 0$. Here, the derivative doesn’t exist for $y = vert xvert$ since the RHS and LHS limits are not equal, but the derivative does exist for $y = x^2$, so what is the difference?



                You can observe the reason visually without calculating. Check https://www.desmos.com/calculator/czqmiiuxrr (the graph the functions). Then, try to zoom in on $x = 0$. Notice that $y = x^2$ seems to flatten out the more you zoom in. However, no matter how much you zoom in on $y = vert xvert$, it always retains its V-shape.



                $sin x$ behaves like $y = x^2$ in this regard. It flattens out if you zoom in on $x = frac{pi}{2}$, so the slope of the tangent at that point is $0$. You can check https://www.desmos.com/calculator/l5lv0sypss (the graph of $sin x$) to see what I mean.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                • That's seems more like it. It's more a technical thing than actucal calculations. Do you know of any graphs in which the right hand and left hand limits are both the same(by the derivative formula) but the function is not differentiable at the point ?
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago










                • It can be shown through calculations (first part of the answer), but it can be understood much more easily when visualized in this way. Also, if the RHS and LHS limits of a function are equal at a point by the definition of a derivative, then they approach the same slope or rate of change as $x$ tends to that value. (Hence, it is defined.)
                  – KM101
                  2 days ago















                up vote
                1
                down vote










                up vote
                1
                down vote









                This is a logical question. However, you can show the limit is equivalent for both the LHS and RHS by



                $$lim_{x to frac{pi}{2}^+}sin’x = cosbigg(frac{pi}{2}^+bigg) = 0$$



                $$lim_{x to frac{pi}{2}^-}sin’x = cosbigg(frac{pi}{2}^-bigg) = 0$$



                Let’s put this example aside for a second and look at $y = vert xvert$ and $y = x^2$, which are similar to your example in that the slopes seem to differ at $x > 0$ and $x < 0$. Here, the derivative doesn’t exist for $y = vert xvert$ since the RHS and LHS limits are not equal, but the derivative does exist for $y = x^2$, so what is the difference?



                You can observe the reason visually without calculating. Check https://www.desmos.com/calculator/czqmiiuxrr (the graph the functions). Then, try to zoom in on $x = 0$. Notice that $y = x^2$ seems to flatten out the more you zoom in. However, no matter how much you zoom in on $y = vert xvert$, it always retains its V-shape.



                $sin x$ behaves like $y = x^2$ in this regard. It flattens out if you zoom in on $x = frac{pi}{2}$, so the slope of the tangent at that point is $0$. You can check https://www.desmos.com/calculator/l5lv0sypss (the graph of $sin x$) to see what I mean.






                share|cite|improve this answer














                This is a logical question. However, you can show the limit is equivalent for both the LHS and RHS by



                $$lim_{x to frac{pi}{2}^+}sin’x = cosbigg(frac{pi}{2}^+bigg) = 0$$



                $$lim_{x to frac{pi}{2}^-}sin’x = cosbigg(frac{pi}{2}^-bigg) = 0$$



                Let’s put this example aside for a second and look at $y = vert xvert$ and $y = x^2$, which are similar to your example in that the slopes seem to differ at $x > 0$ and $x < 0$. Here, the derivative doesn’t exist for $y = vert xvert$ since the RHS and LHS limits are not equal, but the derivative does exist for $y = x^2$, so what is the difference?



                You can observe the reason visually without calculating. Check https://www.desmos.com/calculator/czqmiiuxrr (the graph the functions). Then, try to zoom in on $x = 0$. Notice that $y = x^2$ seems to flatten out the more you zoom in. However, no matter how much you zoom in on $y = vert xvert$, it always retains its V-shape.



                $sin x$ behaves like $y = x^2$ in this regard. It flattens out if you zoom in on $x = frac{pi}{2}$, so the slope of the tangent at that point is $0$. You can check https://www.desmos.com/calculator/l5lv0sypss (the graph of $sin x$) to see what I mean.







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited 2 days ago

























                answered 2 days ago









                KM101

                2,928416




                2,928416












                • That's seems more like it. It's more a technical thing than actucal calculations. Do you know of any graphs in which the right hand and left hand limits are both the same(by the derivative formula) but the function is not differentiable at the point ?
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago










                • It can be shown through calculations (first part of the answer), but it can be understood much more easily when visualized in this way. Also, if the RHS and LHS limits of a function are equal at a point by the definition of a derivative, then they approach the same slope or rate of change as $x$ tends to that value. (Hence, it is defined.)
                  – KM101
                  2 days ago




















                • That's seems more like it. It's more a technical thing than actucal calculations. Do you know of any graphs in which the right hand and left hand limits are both the same(by the derivative formula) but the function is not differentiable at the point ?
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago










                • It can be shown through calculations (first part of the answer), but it can be understood much more easily when visualized in this way. Also, if the RHS and LHS limits of a function are equal at a point by the definition of a derivative, then they approach the same slope or rate of change as $x$ tends to that value. (Hence, it is defined.)
                  – KM101
                  2 days ago


















                That's seems more like it. It's more a technical thing than actucal calculations. Do you know of any graphs in which the right hand and left hand limits are both the same(by the derivative formula) but the function is not differentiable at the point ?
                – Nigel Goveas
                2 days ago




                That's seems more like it. It's more a technical thing than actucal calculations. Do you know of any graphs in which the right hand and left hand limits are both the same(by the derivative formula) but the function is not differentiable at the point ?
                – Nigel Goveas
                2 days ago












                It can be shown through calculations (first part of the answer), but it can be understood much more easily when visualized in this way. Also, if the RHS and LHS limits of a function are equal at a point by the definition of a derivative, then they approach the same slope or rate of change as $x$ tends to that value. (Hence, it is defined.)
                – KM101
                2 days ago






                It can be shown through calculations (first part of the answer), but it can be understood much more easily when visualized in this way. Also, if the RHS and LHS limits of a function are equal at a point by the definition of a derivative, then they approach the same slope or rate of change as $x$ tends to that value. (Hence, it is defined.)
                – KM101
                2 days ago












                up vote
                0
                down vote













                From the left it approaches to $0$, and from the right it approaches to $0$ as well.



                Compare this to $|x|$, from the left it approaches to $-1$, and from the right it goes to $+1$.



                Do you see the difference?






                share|cite|improve this answer





















                • The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago












                • @NigelGoveas '0 point something' is the value of what? the slope? Remember the slope is the tangent of the angle, and for small angles $tan theta approx theta$, so there's a smooth transition around $0$. I don't see how you conclude about the 180 value
                  – caverac
                  2 days ago










                • @NigelGoveas $tan 0^mathrm{o}= tan 180^mathrm{o}$. The slopes are the same.
                  – eyeballfrog
                  2 days ago












                • Well, but as crosses π/2 the slope is negative and the angle is obtuse. I know the modulus of the limits are same and the approach 0. But the angles do differ so what about that ?
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago






                • 1




                  Zoom in on the graph of $sin x$ at $x = frac{pi}{2}$. It flattens out. The graph of $y = vert xvert$ is always V-shaped at $x = 0$ no matter how much you zoom in on it.
                  – KM101
                  2 days ago

















                up vote
                0
                down vote













                From the left it approaches to $0$, and from the right it approaches to $0$ as well.



                Compare this to $|x|$, from the left it approaches to $-1$, and from the right it goes to $+1$.



                Do you see the difference?






                share|cite|improve this answer





















                • The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago












                • @NigelGoveas '0 point something' is the value of what? the slope? Remember the slope is the tangent of the angle, and for small angles $tan theta approx theta$, so there's a smooth transition around $0$. I don't see how you conclude about the 180 value
                  – caverac
                  2 days ago










                • @NigelGoveas $tan 0^mathrm{o}= tan 180^mathrm{o}$. The slopes are the same.
                  – eyeballfrog
                  2 days ago












                • Well, but as crosses π/2 the slope is negative and the angle is obtuse. I know the modulus of the limits are same and the approach 0. But the angles do differ so what about that ?
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago






                • 1




                  Zoom in on the graph of $sin x$ at $x = frac{pi}{2}$. It flattens out. The graph of $y = vert xvert$ is always V-shaped at $x = 0$ no matter how much you zoom in on it.
                  – KM101
                  2 days ago















                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                From the left it approaches to $0$, and from the right it approaches to $0$ as well.



                Compare this to $|x|$, from the left it approaches to $-1$, and from the right it goes to $+1$.



                Do you see the difference?






                share|cite|improve this answer












                From the left it approaches to $0$, and from the right it approaches to $0$ as well.



                Compare this to $|x|$, from the left it approaches to $-1$, and from the right it goes to $+1$.



                Do you see the difference?







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered 2 days ago









                caverac

                11.9k21027




                11.9k21027












                • The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago












                • @NigelGoveas '0 point something' is the value of what? the slope? Remember the slope is the tangent of the angle, and for small angles $tan theta approx theta$, so there's a smooth transition around $0$. I don't see how you conclude about the 180 value
                  – caverac
                  2 days ago










                • @NigelGoveas $tan 0^mathrm{o}= tan 180^mathrm{o}$. The slopes are the same.
                  – eyeballfrog
                  2 days ago












                • Well, but as crosses π/2 the slope is negative and the angle is obtuse. I know the modulus of the limits are same and the approach 0. But the angles do differ so what about that ?
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago






                • 1




                  Zoom in on the graph of $sin x$ at $x = frac{pi}{2}$. It flattens out. The graph of $y = vert xvert$ is always V-shaped at $x = 0$ no matter how much you zoom in on it.
                  – KM101
                  2 days ago




















                • The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago












                • @NigelGoveas '0 point something' is the value of what? the slope? Remember the slope is the tangent of the angle, and for small angles $tan theta approx theta$, so there's a smooth transition around $0$. I don't see how you conclude about the 180 value
                  – caverac
                  2 days ago










                • @NigelGoveas $tan 0^mathrm{o}= tan 180^mathrm{o}$. The slopes are the same.
                  – eyeballfrog
                  2 days ago












                • Well, but as crosses π/2 the slope is negative and the angle is obtuse. I know the modulus of the limits are same and the approach 0. But the angles do differ so what about that ?
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago






                • 1




                  Zoom in on the graph of $sin x$ at $x = frac{pi}{2}$. It flattens out. The graph of $y = vert xvert$ is always V-shaped at $x = 0$ no matter how much you zoom in on it.
                  – KM101
                  2 days ago


















                The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees
                – Nigel Goveas
                2 days ago






                The limit values may be almost same but their angles differ right ? Like for x=π/2 approaching from the left is gives us angle close to 0 while x=π/2 approaching from the right gives us an angle close to 180 degrees
                – Nigel Goveas
                2 days ago














                @NigelGoveas '0 point something' is the value of what? the slope? Remember the slope is the tangent of the angle, and for small angles $tan theta approx theta$, so there's a smooth transition around $0$. I don't see how you conclude about the 180 value
                – caverac
                2 days ago




                @NigelGoveas '0 point something' is the value of what? the slope? Remember the slope is the tangent of the angle, and for small angles $tan theta approx theta$, so there's a smooth transition around $0$. I don't see how you conclude about the 180 value
                – caverac
                2 days ago












                @NigelGoveas $tan 0^mathrm{o}= tan 180^mathrm{o}$. The slopes are the same.
                – eyeballfrog
                2 days ago






                @NigelGoveas $tan 0^mathrm{o}= tan 180^mathrm{o}$. The slopes are the same.
                – eyeballfrog
                2 days ago














                Well, but as crosses π/2 the slope is negative and the angle is obtuse. I know the modulus of the limits are same and the approach 0. But the angles do differ so what about that ?
                – Nigel Goveas
                2 days ago




                Well, but as crosses π/2 the slope is negative and the angle is obtuse. I know the modulus of the limits are same and the approach 0. But the angles do differ so what about that ?
                – Nigel Goveas
                2 days ago




                1




                1




                Zoom in on the graph of $sin x$ at $x = frac{pi}{2}$. It flattens out. The graph of $y = vert xvert$ is always V-shaped at $x = 0$ no matter how much you zoom in on it.
                – KM101
                2 days ago






                Zoom in on the graph of $sin x$ at $x = frac{pi}{2}$. It flattens out. The graph of $y = vert xvert$ is always V-shaped at $x = 0$ no matter how much you zoom in on it.
                – KM101
                2 days ago












                up vote
                0
                down vote













                We have that



                $$lim_{xto frac {pi}2} frac{sin x-sin frac {pi}2}{x-frac {pi}2}
                =lim_{yto 0} frac{sin left( frac {pi}2+yright)-1}{y}
                =lim_{yto 0} frac{cos y-1}{y}=lim_{yto 0} left(ycdotfrac{cos y-1}{y^2}right)=0cdot left(-frac12right)=0$$






                share|cite|improve this answer





















                • Why aren't you checking the left hand right hand limits? We should check that before we say that limit exists at that point
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago










                • We can repeat exactly the same steps for the left hand and right hand limits which are indeed both equal to zero.
                  – gimusi
                  2 days ago















                up vote
                0
                down vote













                We have that



                $$lim_{xto frac {pi}2} frac{sin x-sin frac {pi}2}{x-frac {pi}2}
                =lim_{yto 0} frac{sin left( frac {pi}2+yright)-1}{y}
                =lim_{yto 0} frac{cos y-1}{y}=lim_{yto 0} left(ycdotfrac{cos y-1}{y^2}right)=0cdot left(-frac12right)=0$$






                share|cite|improve this answer





















                • Why aren't you checking the left hand right hand limits? We should check that before we say that limit exists at that point
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago










                • We can repeat exactly the same steps for the left hand and right hand limits which are indeed both equal to zero.
                  – gimusi
                  2 days ago













                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                We have that



                $$lim_{xto frac {pi}2} frac{sin x-sin frac {pi}2}{x-frac {pi}2}
                =lim_{yto 0} frac{sin left( frac {pi}2+yright)-1}{y}
                =lim_{yto 0} frac{cos y-1}{y}=lim_{yto 0} left(ycdotfrac{cos y-1}{y^2}right)=0cdot left(-frac12right)=0$$






                share|cite|improve this answer












                We have that



                $$lim_{xto frac {pi}2} frac{sin x-sin frac {pi}2}{x-frac {pi}2}
                =lim_{yto 0} frac{sin left( frac {pi}2+yright)-1}{y}
                =lim_{yto 0} frac{cos y-1}{y}=lim_{yto 0} left(ycdotfrac{cos y-1}{y^2}right)=0cdot left(-frac12right)=0$$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered 2 days ago









                gimusi

                89.1k74495




                89.1k74495












                • Why aren't you checking the left hand right hand limits? We should check that before we say that limit exists at that point
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago










                • We can repeat exactly the same steps for the left hand and right hand limits which are indeed both equal to zero.
                  – gimusi
                  2 days ago


















                • Why aren't you checking the left hand right hand limits? We should check that before we say that limit exists at that point
                  – Nigel Goveas
                  2 days ago










                • We can repeat exactly the same steps for the left hand and right hand limits which are indeed both equal to zero.
                  – gimusi
                  2 days ago
















                Why aren't you checking the left hand right hand limits? We should check that before we say that limit exists at that point
                – Nigel Goveas
                2 days ago




                Why aren't you checking the left hand right hand limits? We should check that before we say that limit exists at that point
                – Nigel Goveas
                2 days ago












                We can repeat exactly the same steps for the left hand and right hand limits which are indeed both equal to zero.
                – gimusi
                2 days ago




                We can repeat exactly the same steps for the left hand and right hand limits which are indeed both equal to zero.
                – gimusi
                2 days ago










                up vote
                0
                down vote













                The limit is 0 each case. In one case the limit is approached through positive values, and in the other the limit is approached through negative values; but in each case the limit itself is the same: zero.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote













                  The limit is 0 each case. In one case the limit is approached through positive values, and in the other the limit is approached through negative values; but in each case the limit itself is the same: zero.






                  share|cite|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote









                    The limit is 0 each case. In one case the limit is approached through positive values, and in the other the limit is approached through negative values; but in each case the limit itself is the same: zero.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    The limit is 0 each case. In one case the limit is approached through positive values, and in the other the limit is approached through negative values; but in each case the limit itself is the same: zero.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered 2 days ago









                    AmbretteOrrisey

                    3818




                    3818






















                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        It looks you are considering the signs of the numerator and denominator in:
                        $$lim_{xto frac{pi}{2}^-} frac{sin(x)-sin{frac{pi}{2}}}{x-frac{pi}{2}} text{and} lim_{xto frac{pi}{2}^+} frac{sin(x)-sin{frac{pi}{2}}}{x-frac{pi}{2}}.$$
                        In the LHS limit, both numerator and denominator are negative, while in the RHS limit, the numerator is negative and denominator is positive, which seems a contradiction to you. ("So, the right hand limit and left hand limit are different.") The thing is, as others pointed, both LHS and RHS limits are eventually equal to zero.



                        As an easier example, consider the derivative of $f(x)=x^2$ at $x=0$. By your reasoning the function must not have a derivative, while it does have it, because:
                        $$lim_{xto 0^-} frac{x^2-0}{x-0}=0 text{and} lim_{xto 0^+} frac{x^2-0}{x-0}=0.$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer



























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote













                          It looks you are considering the signs of the numerator and denominator in:
                          $$lim_{xto frac{pi}{2}^-} frac{sin(x)-sin{frac{pi}{2}}}{x-frac{pi}{2}} text{and} lim_{xto frac{pi}{2}^+} frac{sin(x)-sin{frac{pi}{2}}}{x-frac{pi}{2}}.$$
                          In the LHS limit, both numerator and denominator are negative, while in the RHS limit, the numerator is negative and denominator is positive, which seems a contradiction to you. ("So, the right hand limit and left hand limit are different.") The thing is, as others pointed, both LHS and RHS limits are eventually equal to zero.



                          As an easier example, consider the derivative of $f(x)=x^2$ at $x=0$. By your reasoning the function must not have a derivative, while it does have it, because:
                          $$lim_{xto 0^-} frac{x^2-0}{x-0}=0 text{and} lim_{xto 0^+} frac{x^2-0}{x-0}=0.$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer

























                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote









                            It looks you are considering the signs of the numerator and denominator in:
                            $$lim_{xto frac{pi}{2}^-} frac{sin(x)-sin{frac{pi}{2}}}{x-frac{pi}{2}} text{and} lim_{xto frac{pi}{2}^+} frac{sin(x)-sin{frac{pi}{2}}}{x-frac{pi}{2}}.$$
                            In the LHS limit, both numerator and denominator are negative, while in the RHS limit, the numerator is negative and denominator is positive, which seems a contradiction to you. ("So, the right hand limit and left hand limit are different.") The thing is, as others pointed, both LHS and RHS limits are eventually equal to zero.



                            As an easier example, consider the derivative of $f(x)=x^2$ at $x=0$. By your reasoning the function must not have a derivative, while it does have it, because:
                            $$lim_{xto 0^-} frac{x^2-0}{x-0}=0 text{and} lim_{xto 0^+} frac{x^2-0}{x-0}=0.$$






                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            It looks you are considering the signs of the numerator and denominator in:
                            $$lim_{xto frac{pi}{2}^-} frac{sin(x)-sin{frac{pi}{2}}}{x-frac{pi}{2}} text{and} lim_{xto frac{pi}{2}^+} frac{sin(x)-sin{frac{pi}{2}}}{x-frac{pi}{2}}.$$
                            In the LHS limit, both numerator and denominator are negative, while in the RHS limit, the numerator is negative and denominator is positive, which seems a contradiction to you. ("So, the right hand limit and left hand limit are different.") The thing is, as others pointed, both LHS and RHS limits are eventually equal to zero.



                            As an easier example, consider the derivative of $f(x)=x^2$ at $x=0$. By your reasoning the function must not have a derivative, while it does have it, because:
                            $$lim_{xto 0^-} frac{x^2-0}{x-0}=0 text{and} lim_{xto 0^+} frac{x^2-0}{x-0}=0.$$







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited yesterday

























                            answered yesterday









                            farruhota

                            18k2736




                            18k2736






























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