If restricted morphism of ringed spaces are equal, then they are actually equal
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Given any two ringed spaces $(X, mathcal O_X)$ and $(Y, mathcal O_Y)$, let ${ U_lambda}_{lambda in Lambda}$ be an open covering of the topological space $X$. If $$f,g: (X, mathcal O_X) to (Y, mathcal O_Y)$$ are morphism of ringed spaces such that $$f|_{lambda} = g|_{lambda}, forall lambda in Lambda,$$ then prove that $$f=g.$$
I'm stuck after writing definitions in detail. Any help or hint will be appreciated.
sheaf-theory ringed-spaces
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Given any two ringed spaces $(X, mathcal O_X)$ and $(Y, mathcal O_Y)$, let ${ U_lambda}_{lambda in Lambda}$ be an open covering of the topological space $X$. If $$f,g: (X, mathcal O_X) to (Y, mathcal O_Y)$$ are morphism of ringed spaces such that $$f|_{lambda} = g|_{lambda}, forall lambda in Lambda,$$ then prove that $$f=g.$$
I'm stuck after writing definitions in detail. Any help or hint will be appreciated.
sheaf-theory ringed-spaces
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Given any two ringed spaces $(X, mathcal O_X)$ and $(Y, mathcal O_Y)$, let ${ U_lambda}_{lambda in Lambda}$ be an open covering of the topological space $X$. If $$f,g: (X, mathcal O_X) to (Y, mathcal O_Y)$$ are morphism of ringed spaces such that $$f|_{lambda} = g|_{lambda}, forall lambda in Lambda,$$ then prove that $$f=g.$$
I'm stuck after writing definitions in detail. Any help or hint will be appreciated.
sheaf-theory ringed-spaces
Given any two ringed spaces $(X, mathcal O_X)$ and $(Y, mathcal O_Y)$, let ${ U_lambda}_{lambda in Lambda}$ be an open covering of the topological space $X$. If $$f,g: (X, mathcal O_X) to (Y, mathcal O_Y)$$ are morphism of ringed spaces such that $$f|_{lambda} = g|_{lambda}, forall lambda in Lambda,$$ then prove that $$f=g.$$
I'm stuck after writing definitions in detail. Any help or hint will be appreciated.
sheaf-theory ringed-spaces
sheaf-theory ringed-spaces
edited 2 days ago
Armando j18eos
2,56011227
2,56011227
asked 2 days ago
user621469
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First, I should hope its clear that if two maps of topological spaces agree on an open cover then they are equal (since maps of topological spaces are functions, so if they agree on any cover of their domain, they are equal as functions).
Thus the key part is to show that $f^sharp=g^sharp$ as morphisms from $newcommandcalO{mathcal{O}}calO_Yto f_*calO_X=g_*calO_X$.
Let $V$ be an open subset of $Y$. Let $aincalO_Y(V)$. Let $newcommandinv{^{-1}}U=finv(V)=ginv(V)$. Then $f^sharp(a),g^sharp(a)in calO_X(U)$ by definition. Then ${U_lambdacap U}_{lambdainLambda}$ gives an open cover of $U$, and since $f|_{U_lambda}=g|_{U_lambda}$, we have that $f^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}=g^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}$. Then since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf. Thus since $a$ and $V$ were arbitrary, $f^sharp=g^sharp$.
Edit in response to comment:
To clarify why $f^sharp(a)$ agreeing with $g^sharp(a)$ on an open cover of $U$ implies that they are equal, this is one of the axioms of sheaves. On wiki, this is the locality axiom. The axiom says that if $F$ is a sheaf, and $a,bin F(U)$, and ${U_i}$ is a cover of $U$, then if $a|_{U_i}=b|_{U_i}$ for all $i$, then $a=b$.
Why "since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf" holds automatic? I couldn't say this impliance from the definition of the sheaf.
– user621469
yesterday
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
First, I should hope its clear that if two maps of topological spaces agree on an open cover then they are equal (since maps of topological spaces are functions, so if they agree on any cover of their domain, they are equal as functions).
Thus the key part is to show that $f^sharp=g^sharp$ as morphisms from $newcommandcalO{mathcal{O}}calO_Yto f_*calO_X=g_*calO_X$.
Let $V$ be an open subset of $Y$. Let $aincalO_Y(V)$. Let $newcommandinv{^{-1}}U=finv(V)=ginv(V)$. Then $f^sharp(a),g^sharp(a)in calO_X(U)$ by definition. Then ${U_lambdacap U}_{lambdainLambda}$ gives an open cover of $U$, and since $f|_{U_lambda}=g|_{U_lambda}$, we have that $f^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}=g^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}$. Then since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf. Thus since $a$ and $V$ were arbitrary, $f^sharp=g^sharp$.
Edit in response to comment:
To clarify why $f^sharp(a)$ agreeing with $g^sharp(a)$ on an open cover of $U$ implies that they are equal, this is one of the axioms of sheaves. On wiki, this is the locality axiom. The axiom says that if $F$ is a sheaf, and $a,bin F(U)$, and ${U_i}$ is a cover of $U$, then if $a|_{U_i}=b|_{U_i}$ for all $i$, then $a=b$.
Why "since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf" holds automatic? I couldn't say this impliance from the definition of the sheaf.
– user621469
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
First, I should hope its clear that if two maps of topological spaces agree on an open cover then they are equal (since maps of topological spaces are functions, so if they agree on any cover of their domain, they are equal as functions).
Thus the key part is to show that $f^sharp=g^sharp$ as morphisms from $newcommandcalO{mathcal{O}}calO_Yto f_*calO_X=g_*calO_X$.
Let $V$ be an open subset of $Y$. Let $aincalO_Y(V)$. Let $newcommandinv{^{-1}}U=finv(V)=ginv(V)$. Then $f^sharp(a),g^sharp(a)in calO_X(U)$ by definition. Then ${U_lambdacap U}_{lambdainLambda}$ gives an open cover of $U$, and since $f|_{U_lambda}=g|_{U_lambda}$, we have that $f^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}=g^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}$. Then since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf. Thus since $a$ and $V$ were arbitrary, $f^sharp=g^sharp$.
Edit in response to comment:
To clarify why $f^sharp(a)$ agreeing with $g^sharp(a)$ on an open cover of $U$ implies that they are equal, this is one of the axioms of sheaves. On wiki, this is the locality axiom. The axiom says that if $F$ is a sheaf, and $a,bin F(U)$, and ${U_i}$ is a cover of $U$, then if $a|_{U_i}=b|_{U_i}$ for all $i$, then $a=b$.
Why "since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf" holds automatic? I couldn't say this impliance from the definition of the sheaf.
– user621469
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
First, I should hope its clear that if two maps of topological spaces agree on an open cover then they are equal (since maps of topological spaces are functions, so if they agree on any cover of their domain, they are equal as functions).
Thus the key part is to show that $f^sharp=g^sharp$ as morphisms from $newcommandcalO{mathcal{O}}calO_Yto f_*calO_X=g_*calO_X$.
Let $V$ be an open subset of $Y$. Let $aincalO_Y(V)$. Let $newcommandinv{^{-1}}U=finv(V)=ginv(V)$. Then $f^sharp(a),g^sharp(a)in calO_X(U)$ by definition. Then ${U_lambdacap U}_{lambdainLambda}$ gives an open cover of $U$, and since $f|_{U_lambda}=g|_{U_lambda}$, we have that $f^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}=g^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}$. Then since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf. Thus since $a$ and $V$ were arbitrary, $f^sharp=g^sharp$.
Edit in response to comment:
To clarify why $f^sharp(a)$ agreeing with $g^sharp(a)$ on an open cover of $U$ implies that they are equal, this is one of the axioms of sheaves. On wiki, this is the locality axiom. The axiom says that if $F$ is a sheaf, and $a,bin F(U)$, and ${U_i}$ is a cover of $U$, then if $a|_{U_i}=b|_{U_i}$ for all $i$, then $a=b$.
First, I should hope its clear that if two maps of topological spaces agree on an open cover then they are equal (since maps of topological spaces are functions, so if they agree on any cover of their domain, they are equal as functions).
Thus the key part is to show that $f^sharp=g^sharp$ as morphisms from $newcommandcalO{mathcal{O}}calO_Yto f_*calO_X=g_*calO_X$.
Let $V$ be an open subset of $Y$. Let $aincalO_Y(V)$. Let $newcommandinv{^{-1}}U=finv(V)=ginv(V)$. Then $f^sharp(a),g^sharp(a)in calO_X(U)$ by definition. Then ${U_lambdacap U}_{lambdainLambda}$ gives an open cover of $U$, and since $f|_{U_lambda}=g|_{U_lambda}$, we have that $f^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}=g^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}$. Then since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf. Thus since $a$ and $V$ were arbitrary, $f^sharp=g^sharp$.
Edit in response to comment:
To clarify why $f^sharp(a)$ agreeing with $g^sharp(a)$ on an open cover of $U$ implies that they are equal, this is one of the axioms of sheaves. On wiki, this is the locality axiom. The axiom says that if $F$ is a sheaf, and $a,bin F(U)$, and ${U_i}$ is a cover of $U$, then if $a|_{U_i}=b|_{U_i}$ for all $i$, then $a=b$.
edited yesterday
answered 2 days ago
jgon
10.2k11638
10.2k11638
Why "since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf" holds automatic? I couldn't say this impliance from the definition of the sheaf.
– user621469
yesterday
add a comment |
Why "since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf" holds automatic? I couldn't say this impliance from the definition of the sheaf.
– user621469
yesterday
Why "since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf" holds automatic? I couldn't say this impliance from the definition of the sheaf.
– user621469
yesterday
Why "since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf" holds automatic? I couldn't say this impliance from the definition of the sheaf.
– user621469
yesterday
add a comment |
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