If restricted morphism of ringed spaces are equal, then they are actually equal











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Given any two ringed spaces $(X, mathcal O_X)$ and $(Y, mathcal O_Y)$, let ${ U_lambda}_{lambda in Lambda}$ be an open covering of the topological space $X$. If $$f,g: (X, mathcal O_X) to (Y, mathcal O_Y)$$ are morphism of ringed spaces such that $$f|_{lambda} = g|_{lambda}, forall lambda in Lambda,$$ then prove that $$f=g.$$



I'm stuck after writing definitions in detail. Any help or hint will be appreciated.










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    Given any two ringed spaces $(X, mathcal O_X)$ and $(Y, mathcal O_Y)$, let ${ U_lambda}_{lambda in Lambda}$ be an open covering of the topological space $X$. If $$f,g: (X, mathcal O_X) to (Y, mathcal O_Y)$$ are morphism of ringed spaces such that $$f|_{lambda} = g|_{lambda}, forall lambda in Lambda,$$ then prove that $$f=g.$$



    I'm stuck after writing definitions in detail. Any help or hint will be appreciated.










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      up vote
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      up vote
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      favorite











      Given any two ringed spaces $(X, mathcal O_X)$ and $(Y, mathcal O_Y)$, let ${ U_lambda}_{lambda in Lambda}$ be an open covering of the topological space $X$. If $$f,g: (X, mathcal O_X) to (Y, mathcal O_Y)$$ are morphism of ringed spaces such that $$f|_{lambda} = g|_{lambda}, forall lambda in Lambda,$$ then prove that $$f=g.$$



      I'm stuck after writing definitions in detail. Any help or hint will be appreciated.










      share|cite|improve this question















      Given any two ringed spaces $(X, mathcal O_X)$ and $(Y, mathcal O_Y)$, let ${ U_lambda}_{lambda in Lambda}$ be an open covering of the topological space $X$. If $$f,g: (X, mathcal O_X) to (Y, mathcal O_Y)$$ are morphism of ringed spaces such that $$f|_{lambda} = g|_{lambda}, forall lambda in Lambda,$$ then prove that $$f=g.$$



      I'm stuck after writing definitions in detail. Any help or hint will be appreciated.







      sheaf-theory ringed-spaces






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      edited 2 days ago









      Armando j18eos

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      asked 2 days ago







      user621469





























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          First, I should hope its clear that if two maps of topological spaces agree on an open cover then they are equal (since maps of topological spaces are functions, so if they agree on any cover of their domain, they are equal as functions).



          Thus the key part is to show that $f^sharp=g^sharp$ as morphisms from $newcommandcalO{mathcal{O}}calO_Yto f_*calO_X=g_*calO_X$.



          Let $V$ be an open subset of $Y$. Let $aincalO_Y(V)$. Let $newcommandinv{^{-1}}U=finv(V)=ginv(V)$. Then $f^sharp(a),g^sharp(a)in calO_X(U)$ by definition. Then ${U_lambdacap U}_{lambdainLambda}$ gives an open cover of $U$, and since $f|_{U_lambda}=g|_{U_lambda}$, we have that $f^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}=g^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}$. Then since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf. Thus since $a$ and $V$ were arbitrary, $f^sharp=g^sharp$.



          Edit in response to comment:



          To clarify why $f^sharp(a)$ agreeing with $g^sharp(a)$ on an open cover of $U$ implies that they are equal, this is one of the axioms of sheaves. On wiki, this is the locality axiom. The axiom says that if $F$ is a sheaf, and $a,bin F(U)$, and ${U_i}$ is a cover of $U$, then if $a|_{U_i}=b|_{U_i}$ for all $i$, then $a=b$.






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          • Why "since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf" holds automatic? I couldn't say this impliance from the definition of the sheaf.
            – user621469
            yesterday











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          1 Answer
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          up vote
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          down vote



          accepted










          First, I should hope its clear that if two maps of topological spaces agree on an open cover then they are equal (since maps of topological spaces are functions, so if they agree on any cover of their domain, they are equal as functions).



          Thus the key part is to show that $f^sharp=g^sharp$ as morphisms from $newcommandcalO{mathcal{O}}calO_Yto f_*calO_X=g_*calO_X$.



          Let $V$ be an open subset of $Y$. Let $aincalO_Y(V)$. Let $newcommandinv{^{-1}}U=finv(V)=ginv(V)$. Then $f^sharp(a),g^sharp(a)in calO_X(U)$ by definition. Then ${U_lambdacap U}_{lambdainLambda}$ gives an open cover of $U$, and since $f|_{U_lambda}=g|_{U_lambda}$, we have that $f^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}=g^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}$. Then since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf. Thus since $a$ and $V$ were arbitrary, $f^sharp=g^sharp$.



          Edit in response to comment:



          To clarify why $f^sharp(a)$ agreeing with $g^sharp(a)$ on an open cover of $U$ implies that they are equal, this is one of the axioms of sheaves. On wiki, this is the locality axiom. The axiom says that if $F$ is a sheaf, and $a,bin F(U)$, and ${U_i}$ is a cover of $U$, then if $a|_{U_i}=b|_{U_i}$ for all $i$, then $a=b$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Why "since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf" holds automatic? I couldn't say this impliance from the definition of the sheaf.
            – user621469
            yesterday















          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          First, I should hope its clear that if two maps of topological spaces agree on an open cover then they are equal (since maps of topological spaces are functions, so if they agree on any cover of their domain, they are equal as functions).



          Thus the key part is to show that $f^sharp=g^sharp$ as morphisms from $newcommandcalO{mathcal{O}}calO_Yto f_*calO_X=g_*calO_X$.



          Let $V$ be an open subset of $Y$. Let $aincalO_Y(V)$. Let $newcommandinv{^{-1}}U=finv(V)=ginv(V)$. Then $f^sharp(a),g^sharp(a)in calO_X(U)$ by definition. Then ${U_lambdacap U}_{lambdainLambda}$ gives an open cover of $U$, and since $f|_{U_lambda}=g|_{U_lambda}$, we have that $f^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}=g^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}$. Then since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf. Thus since $a$ and $V$ were arbitrary, $f^sharp=g^sharp$.



          Edit in response to comment:



          To clarify why $f^sharp(a)$ agreeing with $g^sharp(a)$ on an open cover of $U$ implies that they are equal, this is one of the axioms of sheaves. On wiki, this is the locality axiom. The axiom says that if $F$ is a sheaf, and $a,bin F(U)$, and ${U_i}$ is a cover of $U$, then if $a|_{U_i}=b|_{U_i}$ for all $i$, then $a=b$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Why "since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf" holds automatic? I couldn't say this impliance from the definition of the sheaf.
            – user621469
            yesterday













          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted






          First, I should hope its clear that if two maps of topological spaces agree on an open cover then they are equal (since maps of topological spaces are functions, so if they agree on any cover of their domain, they are equal as functions).



          Thus the key part is to show that $f^sharp=g^sharp$ as morphisms from $newcommandcalO{mathcal{O}}calO_Yto f_*calO_X=g_*calO_X$.



          Let $V$ be an open subset of $Y$. Let $aincalO_Y(V)$. Let $newcommandinv{^{-1}}U=finv(V)=ginv(V)$. Then $f^sharp(a),g^sharp(a)in calO_X(U)$ by definition. Then ${U_lambdacap U}_{lambdainLambda}$ gives an open cover of $U$, and since $f|_{U_lambda}=g|_{U_lambda}$, we have that $f^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}=g^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}$. Then since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf. Thus since $a$ and $V$ were arbitrary, $f^sharp=g^sharp$.



          Edit in response to comment:



          To clarify why $f^sharp(a)$ agreeing with $g^sharp(a)$ on an open cover of $U$ implies that they are equal, this is one of the axioms of sheaves. On wiki, this is the locality axiom. The axiom says that if $F$ is a sheaf, and $a,bin F(U)$, and ${U_i}$ is a cover of $U$, then if $a|_{U_i}=b|_{U_i}$ for all $i$, then $a=b$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          First, I should hope its clear that if two maps of topological spaces agree on an open cover then they are equal (since maps of topological spaces are functions, so if they agree on any cover of their domain, they are equal as functions).



          Thus the key part is to show that $f^sharp=g^sharp$ as morphisms from $newcommandcalO{mathcal{O}}calO_Yto f_*calO_X=g_*calO_X$.



          Let $V$ be an open subset of $Y$. Let $aincalO_Y(V)$. Let $newcommandinv{^{-1}}U=finv(V)=ginv(V)$. Then $f^sharp(a),g^sharp(a)in calO_X(U)$ by definition. Then ${U_lambdacap U}_{lambdainLambda}$ gives an open cover of $U$, and since $f|_{U_lambda}=g|_{U_lambda}$, we have that $f^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}=g^sharp(a)|_{Ucap U_lambda}$. Then since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf. Thus since $a$ and $V$ were arbitrary, $f^sharp=g^sharp$.



          Edit in response to comment:



          To clarify why $f^sharp(a)$ agreeing with $g^sharp(a)$ on an open cover of $U$ implies that they are equal, this is one of the axioms of sheaves. On wiki, this is the locality axiom. The axiom says that if $F$ is a sheaf, and $a,bin F(U)$, and ${U_i}$ is a cover of $U$, then if $a|_{U_i}=b|_{U_i}$ for all $i$, then $a=b$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited yesterday

























          answered 2 days ago









          jgon

          10.2k11638




          10.2k11638












          • Why "since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf" holds automatic? I couldn't say this impliance from the definition of the sheaf.
            – user621469
            yesterday


















          • Why "since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf" holds automatic? I couldn't say this impliance from the definition of the sheaf.
            – user621469
            yesterday
















          Why "since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf" holds automatic? I couldn't say this impliance from the definition of the sheaf.
          – user621469
          yesterday




          Why "since $f^sharp(a)$ and $g^sharp(a)$ are equal on an open cover of $U$, we must have that $f^sharp(a)=g^sharp(a)$ since $calO_X$ is a sheaf" holds automatic? I couldn't say this impliance from the definition of the sheaf.
          – user621469
          yesterday


















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