How to prove that $(C( F), langle.,.rangle_2)$ is a pre-Hilbert space?











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2
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Let $F$ be a surface. For all continuous functions $f,g in C(F) $ define
$$ langle f,grangle_2 := int_F f(x)g(x), dx $$



I'm struggling to show, that $ (C(F),langle.,.rangle_2) $ is a pre-hilbert space. Can you help me out? :) Any help will be very appreciated.



Showing that $<f,g>$ is a scalarproduct:



1.



$ 0 leq $ $<f,f> $
and if $ <f,f>=0 $
$ leftrightarrow int_F f(x)f(x) do(x)=0 $



then $f(x) =0 $



2.
$<f+h,g>= int_F (f+h)(x)g(x) do(x) = int_F f(x)g(x)+int_f h(x)g(x)= int_F f(x)g(x) do(x) + int h(x)g(x) do(x)= <f,g>+<h,g> $



3.
$ < lambda f,g>= lambda <f,g> $ is clear










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  • 1




    Which part are you struggling with?
    – Berci
    Dec 5 at 18:44










  • do I ''only'' have to show, that $<f,g>$ is a scalarproduct?
    – wondering1123
    Dec 5 at 18:47






  • 1




    Yes. I guess the base field is $Bbb R$.
    – Berci
    Dec 5 at 18:49






  • 1




    @wondering1123 yes, you need to show that $langle.,.rangle_2$ is an inner product
    – Masacroso
    Dec 5 at 18:58












  • thanks! I edited some more.
    – wondering1123
    Dec 5 at 19:09















up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Let $F$ be a surface. For all continuous functions $f,g in C(F) $ define
$$ langle f,grangle_2 := int_F f(x)g(x), dx $$



I'm struggling to show, that $ (C(F),langle.,.rangle_2) $ is a pre-hilbert space. Can you help me out? :) Any help will be very appreciated.



Showing that $<f,g>$ is a scalarproduct:



1.



$ 0 leq $ $<f,f> $
and if $ <f,f>=0 $
$ leftrightarrow int_F f(x)f(x) do(x)=0 $



then $f(x) =0 $



2.
$<f+h,g>= int_F (f+h)(x)g(x) do(x) = int_F f(x)g(x)+int_f h(x)g(x)= int_F f(x)g(x) do(x) + int h(x)g(x) do(x)= <f,g>+<h,g> $



3.
$ < lambda f,g>= lambda <f,g> $ is clear










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Which part are you struggling with?
    – Berci
    Dec 5 at 18:44










  • do I ''only'' have to show, that $<f,g>$ is a scalarproduct?
    – wondering1123
    Dec 5 at 18:47






  • 1




    Yes. I guess the base field is $Bbb R$.
    – Berci
    Dec 5 at 18:49






  • 1




    @wondering1123 yes, you need to show that $langle.,.rangle_2$ is an inner product
    – Masacroso
    Dec 5 at 18:58












  • thanks! I edited some more.
    – wondering1123
    Dec 5 at 19:09













up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Let $F$ be a surface. For all continuous functions $f,g in C(F) $ define
$$ langle f,grangle_2 := int_F f(x)g(x), dx $$



I'm struggling to show, that $ (C(F),langle.,.rangle_2) $ is a pre-hilbert space. Can you help me out? :) Any help will be very appreciated.



Showing that $<f,g>$ is a scalarproduct:



1.



$ 0 leq $ $<f,f> $
and if $ <f,f>=0 $
$ leftrightarrow int_F f(x)f(x) do(x)=0 $



then $f(x) =0 $



2.
$<f+h,g>= int_F (f+h)(x)g(x) do(x) = int_F f(x)g(x)+int_f h(x)g(x)= int_F f(x)g(x) do(x) + int h(x)g(x) do(x)= <f,g>+<h,g> $



3.
$ < lambda f,g>= lambda <f,g> $ is clear










share|cite|improve this question















Let $F$ be a surface. For all continuous functions $f,g in C(F) $ define
$$ langle f,grangle_2 := int_F f(x)g(x), dx $$



I'm struggling to show, that $ (C(F),langle.,.rangle_2) $ is a pre-hilbert space. Can you help me out? :) Any help will be very appreciated.



Showing that $<f,g>$ is a scalarproduct:



1.



$ 0 leq $ $<f,f> $
and if $ <f,f>=0 $
$ leftrightarrow int_F f(x)f(x) do(x)=0 $



then $f(x) =0 $



2.
$<f+h,g>= int_F (f+h)(x)g(x) do(x) = int_F f(x)g(x)+int_f h(x)g(x)= int_F f(x)g(x) do(x) + int h(x)g(x) do(x)= <f,g>+<h,g> $



3.
$ < lambda f,g>= lambda <f,g> $ is clear







real-analysis inner-product-space






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Dec 5 at 19:07

























asked Dec 5 at 18:36









wondering1123

10011




10011








  • 1




    Which part are you struggling with?
    – Berci
    Dec 5 at 18:44










  • do I ''only'' have to show, that $<f,g>$ is a scalarproduct?
    – wondering1123
    Dec 5 at 18:47






  • 1




    Yes. I guess the base field is $Bbb R$.
    – Berci
    Dec 5 at 18:49






  • 1




    @wondering1123 yes, you need to show that $langle.,.rangle_2$ is an inner product
    – Masacroso
    Dec 5 at 18:58












  • thanks! I edited some more.
    – wondering1123
    Dec 5 at 19:09














  • 1




    Which part are you struggling with?
    – Berci
    Dec 5 at 18:44










  • do I ''only'' have to show, that $<f,g>$ is a scalarproduct?
    – wondering1123
    Dec 5 at 18:47






  • 1




    Yes. I guess the base field is $Bbb R$.
    – Berci
    Dec 5 at 18:49






  • 1




    @wondering1123 yes, you need to show that $langle.,.rangle_2$ is an inner product
    – Masacroso
    Dec 5 at 18:58












  • thanks! I edited some more.
    – wondering1123
    Dec 5 at 19:09








1




1




Which part are you struggling with?
– Berci
Dec 5 at 18:44




Which part are you struggling with?
– Berci
Dec 5 at 18:44












do I ''only'' have to show, that $<f,g>$ is a scalarproduct?
– wondering1123
Dec 5 at 18:47




do I ''only'' have to show, that $<f,g>$ is a scalarproduct?
– wondering1123
Dec 5 at 18:47




1




1




Yes. I guess the base field is $Bbb R$.
– Berci
Dec 5 at 18:49




Yes. I guess the base field is $Bbb R$.
– Berci
Dec 5 at 18:49




1




1




@wondering1123 yes, you need to show that $langle.,.rangle_2$ is an inner product
– Masacroso
Dec 5 at 18:58






@wondering1123 yes, you need to show that $langle.,.rangle_2$ is an inner product
– Masacroso
Dec 5 at 18:58














thanks! I edited some more.
– wondering1123
Dec 5 at 19:09




thanks! I edited some more.
– wondering1123
Dec 5 at 19:09















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