Prove that If B is open, then $overline{A} cap B subset overline{A cap B}$











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Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and let $A, B subset X$. Prove that:
If B is open, then $$overline{A} cap B subset overline{A cap B}$$ where $overline{S}$ indicates closure for some set $S$.



For proof I was only able to change the prove part slightly(not sure if this is a correct start):



Since $B subset overline{B} implies overline{A} cap overline{B} subset overline{A cap B}$










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    Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and let $A, B subset X$. Prove that:
    If B is open, then $$overline{A} cap B subset overline{A cap B}$$ where $overline{S}$ indicates closure for some set $S$.



    For proof I was only able to change the prove part slightly(not sure if this is a correct start):



    Since $B subset overline{B} implies overline{A} cap overline{B} subset overline{A cap B}$










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and let $A, B subset X$. Prove that:
      If B is open, then $$overline{A} cap B subset overline{A cap B}$$ where $overline{S}$ indicates closure for some set $S$.



      For proof I was only able to change the prove part slightly(not sure if this is a correct start):



      Since $B subset overline{B} implies overline{A} cap overline{B} subset overline{A cap B}$










      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and let $A, B subset X$. Prove that:
      If B is open, then $$overline{A} cap B subset overline{A cap B}$$ where $overline{S}$ indicates closure for some set $S$.



      For proof I was only able to change the prove part slightly(not sure if this is a correct start):



      Since $B subset overline{B} implies overline{A} cap overline{B} subset overline{A cap B}$







      real-analysis general-topology metric-spaces






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      asked Dec 5 at 18:47









      Pumpkin

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          Given a set $E subset X$ you have $x in overline E$ if and only if every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $E$.



          Let $x in overline A cap B$. Then $x in B$ and every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $A$.



          Let $U$ be a neighborhood of $x$. Since $x in B$ and $B$ is open, $U cap B$ is a neighborhood of $x$ too.



          But every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $A$, so that $U cap B$ contains a point of $A$. If you denote this point by $z$, you find $z in U cap (A cap B)$. Thus $U$ contains a point of $A cap B$.



          Since $U$ was an arbitrary neighborhood of $x$, it follows that $x in overline{A cap B}$.



          Consequently $overline A cap B subset overline{A cap B}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




























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            Let $xin {overline A}cap B$. Since $B$ is open, we can chose $r > 0$ $B_{r}(x)subseteq B$. Let $0 < s < r$. Then $B_s(0) cap B not=emptyset$. Since $xin{overline A}$, $B_s(x)cap A not = emptyset$. Thus $B_s(x)cap A cap B not= emptyset$.



            We have just shown $xin overline{A cap B}.$






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Why you assume 0 is included in the set?
              – Pumpkin
              Dec 6 at 11:16











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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
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            accepted










            Given a set $E subset X$ you have $x in overline E$ if and only if every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $E$.



            Let $x in overline A cap B$. Then $x in B$ and every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $A$.



            Let $U$ be a neighborhood of $x$. Since $x in B$ and $B$ is open, $U cap B$ is a neighborhood of $x$ too.



            But every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $A$, so that $U cap B$ contains a point of $A$. If you denote this point by $z$, you find $z in U cap (A cap B)$. Thus $U$ contains a point of $A cap B$.



            Since $U$ was an arbitrary neighborhood of $x$, it follows that $x in overline{A cap B}$.



            Consequently $overline A cap B subset overline{A cap B}$.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              1
              down vote



              accepted










              Given a set $E subset X$ you have $x in overline E$ if and only if every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $E$.



              Let $x in overline A cap B$. Then $x in B$ and every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $A$.



              Let $U$ be a neighborhood of $x$. Since $x in B$ and $B$ is open, $U cap B$ is a neighborhood of $x$ too.



              But every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $A$, so that $U cap B$ contains a point of $A$. If you denote this point by $z$, you find $z in U cap (A cap B)$. Thus $U$ contains a point of $A cap B$.



              Since $U$ was an arbitrary neighborhood of $x$, it follows that $x in overline{A cap B}$.



              Consequently $overline A cap B subset overline{A cap B}$.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted






                Given a set $E subset X$ you have $x in overline E$ if and only if every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $E$.



                Let $x in overline A cap B$. Then $x in B$ and every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $A$.



                Let $U$ be a neighborhood of $x$. Since $x in B$ and $B$ is open, $U cap B$ is a neighborhood of $x$ too.



                But every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $A$, so that $U cap B$ contains a point of $A$. If you denote this point by $z$, you find $z in U cap (A cap B)$. Thus $U$ contains a point of $A cap B$.



                Since $U$ was an arbitrary neighborhood of $x$, it follows that $x in overline{A cap B}$.



                Consequently $overline A cap B subset overline{A cap B}$.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Given a set $E subset X$ you have $x in overline E$ if and only if every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $E$.



                Let $x in overline A cap B$. Then $x in B$ and every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $A$.



                Let $U$ be a neighborhood of $x$. Since $x in B$ and $B$ is open, $U cap B$ is a neighborhood of $x$ too.



                But every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $A$, so that $U cap B$ contains a point of $A$. If you denote this point by $z$, you find $z in U cap (A cap B)$. Thus $U$ contains a point of $A cap B$.



                Since $U$ was an arbitrary neighborhood of $x$, it follows that $x in overline{A cap B}$.



                Consequently $overline A cap B subset overline{A cap B}$.







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                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 5 at 19:01









                Umberto P.

                38.3k13063




                38.3k13063






















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                    Let $xin {overline A}cap B$. Since $B$ is open, we can chose $r > 0$ $B_{r}(x)subseteq B$. Let $0 < s < r$. Then $B_s(0) cap B not=emptyset$. Since $xin{overline A}$, $B_s(x)cap A not = emptyset$. Thus $B_s(x)cap A cap B not= emptyset$.



                    We have just shown $xin overline{A cap B}.$






                    share|cite|improve this answer





















                    • Why you assume 0 is included in the set?
                      – Pumpkin
                      Dec 6 at 11:16















                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote













                    Let $xin {overline A}cap B$. Since $B$ is open, we can chose $r > 0$ $B_{r}(x)subseteq B$. Let $0 < s < r$. Then $B_s(0) cap B not=emptyset$. Since $xin{overline A}$, $B_s(x)cap A not = emptyset$. Thus $B_s(x)cap A cap B not= emptyset$.



                    We have just shown $xin overline{A cap B}.$






                    share|cite|improve this answer





















                    • Why you assume 0 is included in the set?
                      – Pumpkin
                      Dec 6 at 11:16













                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote









                    Let $xin {overline A}cap B$. Since $B$ is open, we can chose $r > 0$ $B_{r}(x)subseteq B$. Let $0 < s < r$. Then $B_s(0) cap B not=emptyset$. Since $xin{overline A}$, $B_s(x)cap A not = emptyset$. Thus $B_s(x)cap A cap B not= emptyset$.



                    We have just shown $xin overline{A cap B}.$






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    Let $xin {overline A}cap B$. Since $B$ is open, we can chose $r > 0$ $B_{r}(x)subseteq B$. Let $0 < s < r$. Then $B_s(0) cap B not=emptyset$. Since $xin{overline A}$, $B_s(x)cap A not = emptyset$. Thus $B_s(x)cap A cap B not= emptyset$.



                    We have just shown $xin overline{A cap B}.$







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Dec 5 at 19:04









                    ncmathsadist

                    42.2k259102




                    42.2k259102












                    • Why you assume 0 is included in the set?
                      – Pumpkin
                      Dec 6 at 11:16


















                    • Why you assume 0 is included in the set?
                      – Pumpkin
                      Dec 6 at 11:16
















                    Why you assume 0 is included in the set?
                    – Pumpkin
                    Dec 6 at 11:16




                    Why you assume 0 is included in the set?
                    – Pumpkin
                    Dec 6 at 11:16


















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