I would like an equation of a matrix pseudo-inverse to be explained












-1














I am currently reading a paper titled "A Noise Tolerant Algorithm for Wrist-Mounted Robotic Sensor Calibration with or without Sensor Orientation Measurement", i can email you a snapshot of this paper since i bought it off IEEE.



In this paper, an equation of the form $AX = B$ is solved for $X$ using what appears to be the pseudo-inverse of $A$ (denoted as $A^+$), and then it is stated that:



$$A^+ = (A^TA)^{-1}(A^T)$$



I am not able to follow how this equality is true, is it?



Thank you,










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 3




    What definition of the pseudo-inverse are you working with? Are you asking us to show you how this formula for $A^{+}$ satisfies that definition?
    – Brian Borchers
    Dec 8 at 17:22










  • Assuming that $A$ has full column rank, left-multiply both sides of the matrix equation by $A^top$, then left-multiply both sides by the inverse of $A^top A$.
    – Rodrigo de Azevedo
    Dec 8 at 17:24










  • According to Wikipedia, there are four defining properties of pseudo-inverse and it always exists and is unique. When $A^intercal A$ is invertible, we can show that $(A^intercal A)^{-1} A^intercal$ satisfies the four defining properties mentioned above. Therefore, we can write $A^+ = (A^intercal A)^{-1}A^intercal$ (since it exists and is unique as mentioned above).
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 8 at 17:52










  • @BrianBorchers apologies for the ambiguity, it is assumed to be a Moore-Penrose inverse.
    – Jad Tawil
    Dec 9 at 19:55
















-1














I am currently reading a paper titled "A Noise Tolerant Algorithm for Wrist-Mounted Robotic Sensor Calibration with or without Sensor Orientation Measurement", i can email you a snapshot of this paper since i bought it off IEEE.



In this paper, an equation of the form $AX = B$ is solved for $X$ using what appears to be the pseudo-inverse of $A$ (denoted as $A^+$), and then it is stated that:



$$A^+ = (A^TA)^{-1}(A^T)$$



I am not able to follow how this equality is true, is it?



Thank you,










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 3




    What definition of the pseudo-inverse are you working with? Are you asking us to show you how this formula for $A^{+}$ satisfies that definition?
    – Brian Borchers
    Dec 8 at 17:22










  • Assuming that $A$ has full column rank, left-multiply both sides of the matrix equation by $A^top$, then left-multiply both sides by the inverse of $A^top A$.
    – Rodrigo de Azevedo
    Dec 8 at 17:24










  • According to Wikipedia, there are four defining properties of pseudo-inverse and it always exists and is unique. When $A^intercal A$ is invertible, we can show that $(A^intercal A)^{-1} A^intercal$ satisfies the four defining properties mentioned above. Therefore, we can write $A^+ = (A^intercal A)^{-1}A^intercal$ (since it exists and is unique as mentioned above).
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 8 at 17:52










  • @BrianBorchers apologies for the ambiguity, it is assumed to be a Moore-Penrose inverse.
    – Jad Tawil
    Dec 9 at 19:55














-1












-1








-1







I am currently reading a paper titled "A Noise Tolerant Algorithm for Wrist-Mounted Robotic Sensor Calibration with or without Sensor Orientation Measurement", i can email you a snapshot of this paper since i bought it off IEEE.



In this paper, an equation of the form $AX = B$ is solved for $X$ using what appears to be the pseudo-inverse of $A$ (denoted as $A^+$), and then it is stated that:



$$A^+ = (A^TA)^{-1}(A^T)$$



I am not able to follow how this equality is true, is it?



Thank you,










share|cite|improve this question















I am currently reading a paper titled "A Noise Tolerant Algorithm for Wrist-Mounted Robotic Sensor Calibration with or without Sensor Orientation Measurement", i can email you a snapshot of this paper since i bought it off IEEE.



In this paper, an equation of the form $AX = B$ is solved for $X$ using what appears to be the pseudo-inverse of $A$ (denoted as $A^+$), and then it is stated that:



$$A^+ = (A^TA)^{-1}(A^T)$$



I am not able to follow how this equality is true, is it?



Thank you,







linear-algebra matrices matrix-equations pseudoinverse






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 8 at 17:25









Rodrigo de Azevedo

12.8k41854




12.8k41854










asked Dec 8 at 16:35









Jad Tawil

11




11








  • 3




    What definition of the pseudo-inverse are you working with? Are you asking us to show you how this formula for $A^{+}$ satisfies that definition?
    – Brian Borchers
    Dec 8 at 17:22










  • Assuming that $A$ has full column rank, left-multiply both sides of the matrix equation by $A^top$, then left-multiply both sides by the inverse of $A^top A$.
    – Rodrigo de Azevedo
    Dec 8 at 17:24










  • According to Wikipedia, there are four defining properties of pseudo-inverse and it always exists and is unique. When $A^intercal A$ is invertible, we can show that $(A^intercal A)^{-1} A^intercal$ satisfies the four defining properties mentioned above. Therefore, we can write $A^+ = (A^intercal A)^{-1}A^intercal$ (since it exists and is unique as mentioned above).
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 8 at 17:52










  • @BrianBorchers apologies for the ambiguity, it is assumed to be a Moore-Penrose inverse.
    – Jad Tawil
    Dec 9 at 19:55














  • 3




    What definition of the pseudo-inverse are you working with? Are you asking us to show you how this formula for $A^{+}$ satisfies that definition?
    – Brian Borchers
    Dec 8 at 17:22










  • Assuming that $A$ has full column rank, left-multiply both sides of the matrix equation by $A^top$, then left-multiply both sides by the inverse of $A^top A$.
    – Rodrigo de Azevedo
    Dec 8 at 17:24










  • According to Wikipedia, there are four defining properties of pseudo-inverse and it always exists and is unique. When $A^intercal A$ is invertible, we can show that $(A^intercal A)^{-1} A^intercal$ satisfies the four defining properties mentioned above. Therefore, we can write $A^+ = (A^intercal A)^{-1}A^intercal$ (since it exists and is unique as mentioned above).
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 8 at 17:52










  • @BrianBorchers apologies for the ambiguity, it is assumed to be a Moore-Penrose inverse.
    – Jad Tawil
    Dec 9 at 19:55








3




3




What definition of the pseudo-inverse are you working with? Are you asking us to show you how this formula for $A^{+}$ satisfies that definition?
– Brian Borchers
Dec 8 at 17:22




What definition of the pseudo-inverse are you working with? Are you asking us to show you how this formula for $A^{+}$ satisfies that definition?
– Brian Borchers
Dec 8 at 17:22












Assuming that $A$ has full column rank, left-multiply both sides of the matrix equation by $A^top$, then left-multiply both sides by the inverse of $A^top A$.
– Rodrigo de Azevedo
Dec 8 at 17:24




Assuming that $A$ has full column rank, left-multiply both sides of the matrix equation by $A^top$, then left-multiply both sides by the inverse of $A^top A$.
– Rodrigo de Azevedo
Dec 8 at 17:24












According to Wikipedia, there are four defining properties of pseudo-inverse and it always exists and is unique. When $A^intercal A$ is invertible, we can show that $(A^intercal A)^{-1} A^intercal$ satisfies the four defining properties mentioned above. Therefore, we can write $A^+ = (A^intercal A)^{-1}A^intercal$ (since it exists and is unique as mentioned above).
– Alex Vong
Dec 8 at 17:52




According to Wikipedia, there are four defining properties of pseudo-inverse and it always exists and is unique. When $A^intercal A$ is invertible, we can show that $(A^intercal A)^{-1} A^intercal$ satisfies the four defining properties mentioned above. Therefore, we can write $A^+ = (A^intercal A)^{-1}A^intercal$ (since it exists and is unique as mentioned above).
– Alex Vong
Dec 8 at 17:52












@BrianBorchers apologies for the ambiguity, it is assumed to be a Moore-Penrose inverse.
– Jad Tawil
Dec 9 at 19:55




@BrianBorchers apologies for the ambiguity, it is assumed to be a Moore-Penrose inverse.
– Jad Tawil
Dec 9 at 19:55















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